Virtual ATI Green Light Comprehensive Predictor Practice Questions and
Answers Updated 2026 | Complete ATI Comprehensive Predictor Study
Guide with Verified Questions, Detailed Rationales, Medical-Surgical
Nursing, Pharmacology, Maternal-Newborn, Pediatrics, Mental Health,
Fundamentals, Leadership, Community Health & NGN NCLEX-RN Exam
Prep
Question 1: A nurse is assessing a client who has a new prescription for
furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the
provider?
A. Potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L
B. Sodium level of 140 mEq/L
C. Blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg
D. Heart rate of 72/min
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause hypokalemia. A potassium
level of 3.2 mEq/L is below the expected reference range (3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L) and requires
provider notification.
Question 2: A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a total
hip arthroplasty. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Place a pillow between the client's legs.
B. Encourage the client to bend at the waist.
C. Assist the client to cross their legs.
D. Position the client in a low chair.
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Place a pillow between the client's legs.
Rationale: Placing a pillow between the legs maintains hip abduction and prevents
dislocation of the new joint. Bending at the waist, crossing legs, and sitting in low chairs
increase dislocation risk.
Question 3: A nurse is teaching a client about the proper use of an albuterol inhaler.
Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the
teaching?
A. "I will hold my breath for 5 seconds after inhaling the medication."
B. "I will shake the inhaler vigorously for 10 seconds before use."
C. "I will exhale forcefully into the mouthpiece before inhaling."
D. "I will wait 1 minute between puffs if a second dose is prescribed."
CORRECT ANSWER: D. "I will wait 1 minute between puffs if a second dose is
prescribed."
Rationale: Waiting 1 minute between puffs allows the first dose to absorb and the
airways to open, improving the effectiveness of the second dose. The client should hold
,their breath for 10 seconds, shake for 5 seconds, and exhale away from the
mouthpiece.
Question 4: A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube connected to a water-
seal drainage system. The nurse notes continuous bubbling in the water-seal
chamber. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Clamp the chest tube immediately.
B. Document the finding as expected.
C. Check the system for an air leak.
D. Increase the wall suction pressure.
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Check the system for an air leak.
Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber indicates an air leak in the
system. Intermittent bubbling is expected, but continuous bubbling requires
investigation. Clamping the tube is contraindicated unless specifically ordered for a
brief assessment.
Question 5: A nurse is assessing a client who has a potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L.
Which of the following electrocardiogram (ECG) findings should the nurse expect?
A. Prominent U waves
B. Tall, peaked T waves
C. Prolonged PR interval
D. ST-segment depression
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Tall, peaked T waves
Rationale: Hyperkalemia (potassium > 5.0 mEq/L) commonly presents with tall, peaked
T waves on an ECG. Prominent U waves and ST-segment depression are associated with
hypokalemia.
Question 6: A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a blood transfusion.
Fifteen minutes after the infusion begins, the client reports chills and lower back
pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Administer diphenhydramine.
B. Stop the blood transfusion.
C. Notify the provider.
D. Obtain a urine specimen.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Stop the blood transfusion.
Rationale: The first action when a transfusion reaction is suspected is to stop the
transfusion immediately to prevent further infusion of the incompatible blood. The
nurse should then maintain IV access with normal saline, notify the provider, and
administer medications as prescribed.
,Question 7: A nurse is teaching a client who has a new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes
mellitus about sick-day management. Which of the following instructions should
the nurse include?
A. "Stop taking your insulin if you are unable to eat."
B. "Check your blood glucose every 4 hours."
C. "Avoid drinking fluids to prevent vomiting."
D. "Test your urine for ketones only if your blood glucose is below 200 mg/dL."
CORRECT ANSWER: B. "Check your blood glucose every 4 hours."
Rationale: During illness, clients with diabetes should check their blood glucose every
4 hours. They should continue taking insulin, maintain hydration, and test for ketones if
blood glucose exceeds 240 mg/dL.
Question 8: A nurse is caring for a client who has a nasogastric (NG) tube and is
receiving continuous enteral feedings. Which of the following findings indicates
that the tube is properly placed?
A. Gastric pH of 6.5
B. Aspirate that is greenish-yellow
C. Bowel sounds present in all four quadrants
D. Tube marking at the nostril remains unchanged
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Aspirate that is greenish-yellow
Rationale: Greenish-yellow aspirate indicates gastric placement. A gastric pH should
be 5.5 or lower. Bowel sounds and tube markings are supportive but do not definitively
confirm placement.
Question 9: A nurse is assessing a client who has a suspected pulmonary
embolism. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
A. Bradycardia
B. Hypertension
C. Sudden onset of dyspnea
D. Decreased respiratory rate
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Sudden onset of dyspnea
Rationale: Sudden onset of dyspnea, tachycardia, tachypnea, and pleuritic chest pain
are classic manifestations of a pulmonary embolism. Hypotension, not hypertension,
may occur in massive PE.
Question 10: A nurse is caring for a client who is 32 weeks of gestation and reports
painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. Which of the following conditions should the
nurse suspect?
A. Placental abruption
B. Placenta previa
, C. Uterine rupture
D. Ectopic pregnancy
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Placenta previa
Rationale: Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in the third trimester is the hallmark
sign of placenta previa. Placental abruption typically presents with painful, dark red
bleeding and a rigid abdomen.
Question 11: A nurse is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of digoxin to a
client. The client's apical heart rate is 52/min. Which of the following actions
should the nurse take?
A. Administer the medication as prescribed.
B. Withhold the medication and notify the provider.
C. Administer the medication and recheck the heart rate in 1 hour.
D. Request a prescription for atropine.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Withhold the medication and notify the provider.
Rationale: Digoxin should be withheld if the apical heart rate is less than 60/min in an
adult due to the risk of severe bradycardia and toxicity. The provider must be notified for
further orders.
Question 12: A nurse is caring for a client who has a closed head injury. Which of
the following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?
A. Glasgow Coma Scale score of 14
B. Pupillary reaction to light is brisk and equal
C. Clear fluid draining from the nares
D. Mild headache rated 3 on a 0 to 10 scale
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Clear fluid draining from the nares
Rationale: Clear fluid draining from the nares or ears may indicate cerebrospinal fluid
(CSF) leakage, which is a medical emergency due to the high risk of meningitis.
Question 13: A nurse is teaching a group of parents about infant safety. Which of
the following statements by a parent indicates a need for further teaching?
A. "I will place my baby on their back to sleep."
B. "I will keep the water heater temperature at 120° F (48.9° C)."
C. "I will use a rear-facing car seat until my baby is 1 year old."
D. "I will never leave my baby unattended on a changing table."
CORRECT ANSWER: C. "I will use a rear-facing car seat until my baby is 1 year old."
Rationale: The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends keeping infants in a rear-
facing car seat until at least 1 year of age, but ideally until they reach the maximum
height or weight limit of the seat (often up to 2 years). Stating exactly 1 year as the
absolute limit without mentioning weight/height limits indicates a slight gap, but more
Answers Updated 2026 | Complete ATI Comprehensive Predictor Study
Guide with Verified Questions, Detailed Rationales, Medical-Surgical
Nursing, Pharmacology, Maternal-Newborn, Pediatrics, Mental Health,
Fundamentals, Leadership, Community Health & NGN NCLEX-RN Exam
Prep
Question 1: A nurse is assessing a client who has a new prescription for
furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the
provider?
A. Potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L
B. Sodium level of 140 mEq/L
C. Blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg
D. Heart rate of 72/min
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause hypokalemia. A potassium
level of 3.2 mEq/L is below the expected reference range (3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L) and requires
provider notification.
Question 2: A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a total
hip arthroplasty. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Place a pillow between the client's legs.
B. Encourage the client to bend at the waist.
C. Assist the client to cross their legs.
D. Position the client in a low chair.
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Place a pillow between the client's legs.
Rationale: Placing a pillow between the legs maintains hip abduction and prevents
dislocation of the new joint. Bending at the waist, crossing legs, and sitting in low chairs
increase dislocation risk.
Question 3: A nurse is teaching a client about the proper use of an albuterol inhaler.
Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the
teaching?
A. "I will hold my breath for 5 seconds after inhaling the medication."
B. "I will shake the inhaler vigorously for 10 seconds before use."
C. "I will exhale forcefully into the mouthpiece before inhaling."
D. "I will wait 1 minute between puffs if a second dose is prescribed."
CORRECT ANSWER: D. "I will wait 1 minute between puffs if a second dose is
prescribed."
Rationale: Waiting 1 minute between puffs allows the first dose to absorb and the
airways to open, improving the effectiveness of the second dose. The client should hold
,their breath for 10 seconds, shake for 5 seconds, and exhale away from the
mouthpiece.
Question 4: A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube connected to a water-
seal drainage system. The nurse notes continuous bubbling in the water-seal
chamber. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Clamp the chest tube immediately.
B. Document the finding as expected.
C. Check the system for an air leak.
D. Increase the wall suction pressure.
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Check the system for an air leak.
Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber indicates an air leak in the
system. Intermittent bubbling is expected, but continuous bubbling requires
investigation. Clamping the tube is contraindicated unless specifically ordered for a
brief assessment.
Question 5: A nurse is assessing a client who has a potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L.
Which of the following electrocardiogram (ECG) findings should the nurse expect?
A. Prominent U waves
B. Tall, peaked T waves
C. Prolonged PR interval
D. ST-segment depression
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Tall, peaked T waves
Rationale: Hyperkalemia (potassium > 5.0 mEq/L) commonly presents with tall, peaked
T waves on an ECG. Prominent U waves and ST-segment depression are associated with
hypokalemia.
Question 6: A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a blood transfusion.
Fifteen minutes after the infusion begins, the client reports chills and lower back
pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Administer diphenhydramine.
B. Stop the blood transfusion.
C. Notify the provider.
D. Obtain a urine specimen.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Stop the blood transfusion.
Rationale: The first action when a transfusion reaction is suspected is to stop the
transfusion immediately to prevent further infusion of the incompatible blood. The
nurse should then maintain IV access with normal saline, notify the provider, and
administer medications as prescribed.
,Question 7: A nurse is teaching a client who has a new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes
mellitus about sick-day management. Which of the following instructions should
the nurse include?
A. "Stop taking your insulin if you are unable to eat."
B. "Check your blood glucose every 4 hours."
C. "Avoid drinking fluids to prevent vomiting."
D. "Test your urine for ketones only if your blood glucose is below 200 mg/dL."
CORRECT ANSWER: B. "Check your blood glucose every 4 hours."
Rationale: During illness, clients with diabetes should check their blood glucose every
4 hours. They should continue taking insulin, maintain hydration, and test for ketones if
blood glucose exceeds 240 mg/dL.
Question 8: A nurse is caring for a client who has a nasogastric (NG) tube and is
receiving continuous enteral feedings. Which of the following findings indicates
that the tube is properly placed?
A. Gastric pH of 6.5
B. Aspirate that is greenish-yellow
C. Bowel sounds present in all four quadrants
D. Tube marking at the nostril remains unchanged
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Aspirate that is greenish-yellow
Rationale: Greenish-yellow aspirate indicates gastric placement. A gastric pH should
be 5.5 or lower. Bowel sounds and tube markings are supportive but do not definitively
confirm placement.
Question 9: A nurse is assessing a client who has a suspected pulmonary
embolism. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
A. Bradycardia
B. Hypertension
C. Sudden onset of dyspnea
D. Decreased respiratory rate
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Sudden onset of dyspnea
Rationale: Sudden onset of dyspnea, tachycardia, tachypnea, and pleuritic chest pain
are classic manifestations of a pulmonary embolism. Hypotension, not hypertension,
may occur in massive PE.
Question 10: A nurse is caring for a client who is 32 weeks of gestation and reports
painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. Which of the following conditions should the
nurse suspect?
A. Placental abruption
B. Placenta previa
, C. Uterine rupture
D. Ectopic pregnancy
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Placenta previa
Rationale: Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in the third trimester is the hallmark
sign of placenta previa. Placental abruption typically presents with painful, dark red
bleeding and a rigid abdomen.
Question 11: A nurse is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of digoxin to a
client. The client's apical heart rate is 52/min. Which of the following actions
should the nurse take?
A. Administer the medication as prescribed.
B. Withhold the medication and notify the provider.
C. Administer the medication and recheck the heart rate in 1 hour.
D. Request a prescription for atropine.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Withhold the medication and notify the provider.
Rationale: Digoxin should be withheld if the apical heart rate is less than 60/min in an
adult due to the risk of severe bradycardia and toxicity. The provider must be notified for
further orders.
Question 12: A nurse is caring for a client who has a closed head injury. Which of
the following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?
A. Glasgow Coma Scale score of 14
B. Pupillary reaction to light is brisk and equal
C. Clear fluid draining from the nares
D. Mild headache rated 3 on a 0 to 10 scale
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Clear fluid draining from the nares
Rationale: Clear fluid draining from the nares or ears may indicate cerebrospinal fluid
(CSF) leakage, which is a medical emergency due to the high risk of meningitis.
Question 13: A nurse is teaching a group of parents about infant safety. Which of
the following statements by a parent indicates a need for further teaching?
A. "I will place my baby on their back to sleep."
B. "I will keep the water heater temperature at 120° F (48.9° C)."
C. "I will use a rear-facing car seat until my baby is 1 year old."
D. "I will never leave my baby unattended on a changing table."
CORRECT ANSWER: C. "I will use a rear-facing car seat until my baby is 1 year old."
Rationale: The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends keeping infants in a rear-
facing car seat until at least 1 year of age, but ideally until they reach the maximum
height or weight limit of the seat (often up to 2 years). Stating exactly 1 year as the
absolute limit without mentioning weight/height limits indicates a slight gap, but more
