LATEST COMPLEX FAMILY PLANNING
CERTIFICATION EXAM OFFERED BY
AMERICAN BOARD OF OBSTETRICS &
GYNECOLOGY | COMPLETE EXAM Q&A WITH
RATIONALES
1. A 32-year-old female (G3P2) with two prior
cesarean deliveries presents for pregnancy
termination at 10 weeks gestation. Which is the most
appropriate procedure?
A) Aspiration termination (D&C) with cervical
preparation (osmotic dilators or misoprostol)
B) Medication abortion (mifepristone + misoprostol)
C) Dilation and evacuation (D&E) without cervical
preparation
D) Hysterotomy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Prior cesarean scar increases risk of
uterine perforation; cervical preparation (osmotic
dilators or misoprostol) reduces risk.
2. A 28-year-old female at 8 weeks gestation requests
medication abortion. She has a known ectopic
,pregnancy ruled out by ultrasound. Which is the
standard regimen?
A) Mifepristone 200 mg orally followed by misoprostol
800 mcg buccally 24-48 hours later
B) Misoprostol 800 mcg vaginally alone
C) Methotrexate 50 mg IM followed by misoprostol
800 mcg vaginally
D) Mifepristone 600 mg orally followed by misoprostol
400 mcg orally
Correct answer: A
Rationale: FDA-approved regimen for medication
abortion up to 70 days: mifepristone 200 mg orally,
then misoprostol 800 mcg buccally 24-48 hours later.
3. A 35-year-old female at 16 weeks gestation with
placenta previa (partial) and a history of two prior
cesarean deliveries desires pregnancy termination.
Which is the most appropriate procedure?
A) Dilation and evacuation (D&E) with preoperative
cervical preparation (osmotic dilators)
B) Induction termination with misoprostol and
oxytocin
C) Hysterotomy
D) Medication abortion (mifepristone + misoprostol)
,Correct answer: A
Rationale: D&E is safe for second-trimester
termination, even with placenta previa, when
performed by an experienced provider with cervical
preparation.
4. A 42-year-old female requesting permanent
contraception is scheduled for laparoscopic bilateral
salpingectomy. Which is an advantage over tubal
ligation?
A) Reduced risk of ovarian cancer
B) Lower failure rate
C) Reduced risk of ectopic pregnancy
D) All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Bilateral salpingectomy reduces ovarian
cancer risk (fallopian tube origin), has lower failure
rate, and reduces ectopic pregnancy risk.
5. A 25-year-old female with a history of deep vein
thrombosis (DVT) on warfarin presents for pregnancy
termination at 14 weeks. Which is the most
appropriate method?
, A) Dilation and evacuation (D&E) with cervical
preparation
B) Medication abortion (mifepristone + misoprostol) is
contraindicated
C) Induction termination with misoprostol
D) Hysterotomy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: D&E is safe in anticoagulated patients with
appropriate management (hold warfarin, bridge with
heparin). Induction termination carries higher
bleeding risk.
6. A 30-year-old female with a known uterine
didelphys (double uterus) with a pregnancy in the
right uterus at 12 weeks requests termination. Which
is the most appropriate procedure?
A) Ultrasound-guided D&E
B) Medication abortion (mifepristone + misoprostol)
C) Hysterotomy
D) Induction termination
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Ultrasound-guided D&E is safe in uterine
anomalies; medication abortion may have higher
failure rate due to poor uterine contractility.
CERTIFICATION EXAM OFFERED BY
AMERICAN BOARD OF OBSTETRICS &
GYNECOLOGY | COMPLETE EXAM Q&A WITH
RATIONALES
1. A 32-year-old female (G3P2) with two prior
cesarean deliveries presents for pregnancy
termination at 10 weeks gestation. Which is the most
appropriate procedure?
A) Aspiration termination (D&C) with cervical
preparation (osmotic dilators or misoprostol)
B) Medication abortion (mifepristone + misoprostol)
C) Dilation and evacuation (D&E) without cervical
preparation
D) Hysterotomy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Prior cesarean scar increases risk of
uterine perforation; cervical preparation (osmotic
dilators or misoprostol) reduces risk.
2. A 28-year-old female at 8 weeks gestation requests
medication abortion. She has a known ectopic
,pregnancy ruled out by ultrasound. Which is the
standard regimen?
A) Mifepristone 200 mg orally followed by misoprostol
800 mcg buccally 24-48 hours later
B) Misoprostol 800 mcg vaginally alone
C) Methotrexate 50 mg IM followed by misoprostol
800 mcg vaginally
D) Mifepristone 600 mg orally followed by misoprostol
400 mcg orally
Correct answer: A
Rationale: FDA-approved regimen for medication
abortion up to 70 days: mifepristone 200 mg orally,
then misoprostol 800 mcg buccally 24-48 hours later.
3. A 35-year-old female at 16 weeks gestation with
placenta previa (partial) and a history of two prior
cesarean deliveries desires pregnancy termination.
Which is the most appropriate procedure?
A) Dilation and evacuation (D&E) with preoperative
cervical preparation (osmotic dilators)
B) Induction termination with misoprostol and
oxytocin
C) Hysterotomy
D) Medication abortion (mifepristone + misoprostol)
,Correct answer: A
Rationale: D&E is safe for second-trimester
termination, even with placenta previa, when
performed by an experienced provider with cervical
preparation.
4. A 42-year-old female requesting permanent
contraception is scheduled for laparoscopic bilateral
salpingectomy. Which is an advantage over tubal
ligation?
A) Reduced risk of ovarian cancer
B) Lower failure rate
C) Reduced risk of ectopic pregnancy
D) All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Bilateral salpingectomy reduces ovarian
cancer risk (fallopian tube origin), has lower failure
rate, and reduces ectopic pregnancy risk.
5. A 25-year-old female with a history of deep vein
thrombosis (DVT) on warfarin presents for pregnancy
termination at 14 weeks. Which is the most
appropriate method?
, A) Dilation and evacuation (D&E) with cervical
preparation
B) Medication abortion (mifepristone + misoprostol) is
contraindicated
C) Induction termination with misoprostol
D) Hysterotomy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: D&E is safe in anticoagulated patients with
appropriate management (hold warfarin, bridge with
heparin). Induction termination carries higher
bleeding risk.
6. A 30-year-old female with a known uterine
didelphys (double uterus) with a pregnancy in the
right uterus at 12 weeks requests termination. Which
is the most appropriate procedure?
A) Ultrasound-guided D&E
B) Medication abortion (mifepristone + misoprostol)
C) Hysterotomy
D) Induction termination
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Ultrasound-guided D&E is safe in uterine
anomalies; medication abortion may have higher
failure rate due to poor uterine contractility.
