Newest ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor 2026 Exit
Exam with NGN 100% Verified Answers and
Rationales 180 Questions to Pass 2026 RN ATI
ComprehensivePredictor 2026 Exit Exam
SECTION 1: PRIORITIZATION & ABCs
Q1. A nurse is caring for four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?
• A. Client with pneumonia and oxygen saturation of 89% on room air
• B. Client with diabetes and blood glucose of 65 mg/dL who is alert
• C. Client with a fractured tibia reporting pain of 7/10
• D. Client with a urinary tract infection and temperature of 100.4°F (38°C)
Correct Answer: A
*Rationale: Oxygen saturation <90% indicates hypoxemia, an airway/breathing priority (ABCs).
Hypoglycemia (65 mg/dL) is important but the client is alert. Pain and mild fever are lower
priority .*
Q2. A nurse is assessing a client with heart failure. Which finding requires immediate action?
• A. 2+ pitting edema
• B. Crackles in lower lobes
• C. Weight gain of 1 lb/day
• D. Pink frothy sputum
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Pink frothy sputum indicates acute pulmonary edema, a life-threatening condition
where fluid fills the alveoli, preventing gas exchange. This requires immediate intervention such
,as oxygen, diuretics, and positioning. Crackles indicate fluid but are not immediately life-
threatening .
Q3. A nurse in an emergency department is performing triage for multiple clients following a
disaster. To which injury should the nurse assign the highest priority?
• A. 95% full-thickness body burn
• B. Below-knee amputation
• C. Open tibia fracture
• D. Simple laceration
Correct Answer: A
*Rationale: In disaster triage, massive burns (>90% full-thickness) are often classified as
expectant (black tag) but require immediate evaluation. Among the options, this client has the
highest acuity and greatest need for immediate intervention .*
SECTION 2: CARDIAC & HEMODYNAMICS
Q4. A nurse is caring for a client who has an arteriovenous fistula. Which finding should the
nurse report to the provider?
• A. Palpable thrill
• B. Absence of a bruit
• C. Visible pulsation
• D. Warmth over the site
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A bruit (whooshing sound) and thrill (vibration) indicate patency of the AV fistula.
Absence of a bruit suggests clotting or stenosis, which requires immediate intervention to
prevent loss of vascular access .
Q5. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client with heart failure. Which finding
should cause the nurse to hold the medication? (Select All That Apply)
, • A. Heart rate 58 BPM
• B. Blood pressure 130/80
• C. Potassium level 4.0
• D. Complaints of fatigue
• E. Nausea and vomiting
Correct Answer: A, E
Rationale: Digoxin is held for heart rate below 60 BPM in adults. Nausea and vomiting are early
signs of digoxin toxicity. Potassium 4.0 is within normal range. Fatigue is common but not a
reason to hold digoxin .
Q6. A client presents to the ED with chest pain and ST-segment elevation on ECG. What is the
priority intervention?
• A. Administer morphine
• B. Obtain cardiac enzymes
• C. Prepare for percutaneous coronary intervention
• D. Apply supplemental oxygen
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: ST elevation indicates an acute myocardial infarction requiring immediate
reperfusion. PCI is the gold standard to restore blood flow. Morphine and oxygen are supportive
but not the priority. Cardiac enzymes confirm diagnosis but delay treatment .
Q7. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who has an implantable cardioverter
defibrillator (ICD). Which statement demonstrates understanding?
• A. "I can take a bath instead of a shower."
• B. "I will wear loose clothing around my ICD."
• C. "I can place my cell phone in my left chest pocket."
• D. "I don't need to follow up with my cardiologist."
Correct Answer: B
Exam with NGN 100% Verified Answers and
Rationales 180 Questions to Pass 2026 RN ATI
ComprehensivePredictor 2026 Exit Exam
SECTION 1: PRIORITIZATION & ABCs
Q1. A nurse is caring for four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?
• A. Client with pneumonia and oxygen saturation of 89% on room air
• B. Client with diabetes and blood glucose of 65 mg/dL who is alert
• C. Client with a fractured tibia reporting pain of 7/10
• D. Client with a urinary tract infection and temperature of 100.4°F (38°C)
Correct Answer: A
*Rationale: Oxygen saturation <90% indicates hypoxemia, an airway/breathing priority (ABCs).
Hypoglycemia (65 mg/dL) is important but the client is alert. Pain and mild fever are lower
priority .*
Q2. A nurse is assessing a client with heart failure. Which finding requires immediate action?
• A. 2+ pitting edema
• B. Crackles in lower lobes
• C. Weight gain of 1 lb/day
• D. Pink frothy sputum
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Pink frothy sputum indicates acute pulmonary edema, a life-threatening condition
where fluid fills the alveoli, preventing gas exchange. This requires immediate intervention such
,as oxygen, diuretics, and positioning. Crackles indicate fluid but are not immediately life-
threatening .
Q3. A nurse in an emergency department is performing triage for multiple clients following a
disaster. To which injury should the nurse assign the highest priority?
• A. 95% full-thickness body burn
• B. Below-knee amputation
• C. Open tibia fracture
• D. Simple laceration
Correct Answer: A
*Rationale: In disaster triage, massive burns (>90% full-thickness) are often classified as
expectant (black tag) but require immediate evaluation. Among the options, this client has the
highest acuity and greatest need for immediate intervention .*
SECTION 2: CARDIAC & HEMODYNAMICS
Q4. A nurse is caring for a client who has an arteriovenous fistula. Which finding should the
nurse report to the provider?
• A. Palpable thrill
• B. Absence of a bruit
• C. Visible pulsation
• D. Warmth over the site
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A bruit (whooshing sound) and thrill (vibration) indicate patency of the AV fistula.
Absence of a bruit suggests clotting or stenosis, which requires immediate intervention to
prevent loss of vascular access .
Q5. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client with heart failure. Which finding
should cause the nurse to hold the medication? (Select All That Apply)
, • A. Heart rate 58 BPM
• B. Blood pressure 130/80
• C. Potassium level 4.0
• D. Complaints of fatigue
• E. Nausea and vomiting
Correct Answer: A, E
Rationale: Digoxin is held for heart rate below 60 BPM in adults. Nausea and vomiting are early
signs of digoxin toxicity. Potassium 4.0 is within normal range. Fatigue is common but not a
reason to hold digoxin .
Q6. A client presents to the ED with chest pain and ST-segment elevation on ECG. What is the
priority intervention?
• A. Administer morphine
• B. Obtain cardiac enzymes
• C. Prepare for percutaneous coronary intervention
• D. Apply supplemental oxygen
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: ST elevation indicates an acute myocardial infarction requiring immediate
reperfusion. PCI is the gold standard to restore blood flow. Morphine and oxygen are supportive
but not the priority. Cardiac enzymes confirm diagnosis but delay treatment .
Q7. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who has an implantable cardioverter
defibrillator (ICD). Which statement demonstrates understanding?
• A. "I can take a bath instead of a shower."
• B. "I will wear loose clothing around my ICD."
• C. "I can place my cell phone in my left chest pocket."
• D. "I don't need to follow up with my cardiologist."
Correct Answer: B
