CCHT EXAM ACTUAL 2026/2027 | Certified Clinical
Hemodialysis Technician | Updated Verified Answers &
Questions | Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Section 1: Hemodialysis Principles & Equipment (Q1-20)
Q1. A patient is prescribed a high-flux dialyzer for hemodialysis. Which membrane
characteristic best defines a high-flux dialyzer?
A. Molecular weight cutoff below 1,000 Daltons
B. Beta-2 microglobulin clearance greater than 20 mL/min and ultrafiltration
coefficient above 20 mL/hr/mmHg
C. Inability to remove urea due to large pore size
D. Requirement for lower blood flow rates than low-flux dialyzers
B. Beta-2 microglobulin clearance greater than 20 mL/min and ultrafiltration
coefficient above 20 mL/hr/mmHg [CORRECT]
Rationale: High-flux dialyzers are defined by high ultrafiltration coefficients (Kuf >20
mL/hr/mmHg) and enhanced clearance of middle molecules such as beta-2
microglobulin. They do not require lower blood flows and effectively clear urea.
Correct Answer: B
Q2. During dialyzer reuse processing, which test is performed to ensure the dialyzer
membrane integrity remains within acceptable limits?
A. Blood leak detector calibration
B. Total cell volume (TCV) or fiber bundle volume (FBV) measurement
C. Dialysate conductivity test
D. Venous pressure alarm test
B. Total cell volume (TCV) or fiber bundle volume (FBV) measurement [CORRECT]
Rationale: TCV/FBV testing measures the residual blood compartment volume of the
dialyzer; a result below 80% of the baseline indicates fiber loss or clotting and
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mandates discarding the dialyzer. Conductivity and pressure alarms are machine
functions unrelated to dialyzer integrity.
Correct Answer: B
Q3. The conductivity alarm on the dialysis machine is sounding. Which parameter is
being monitored?
A. The hematocrit of the patient's blood
B. The ionic concentration and total dissolved solids in the dialysate
C. The temperature of the venous blood return
D. The air content in the venous drip chamber
B. The ionic concentration and total dissolved solids in the dialysate [CORRECT]
Rationale: Conductivity monitors measure the ability of dialysate to conduct
electricity, which reflects the concentration of electrolytes (sodium, potassium,
calcium) and ensures proper proportioning of acid and bicarbonate concentrates.
Correct Answer: B
Q4. The transmembrane pressure (TMP) during hemodialysis is calculated using
which three pressure readings?
A. Arterial, venous, and dialysate inlet pressures
B. Venous, dialysate inlet, and dialysate outlet pressures
C. Pre-pump arterial, post-pump arterial, and venous pressures
D. Blood pump speed, ultrafiltration rate, and blood flow rate
B. Venous, dialysate inlet, and dialysate outlet pressures [CORRECT]
Rationale: TMP represents the hydrostatic pressure gradient across the dialyzer
membrane and is derived from venous pressure, dialysate inlet pressure, and
dialysate outlet pressure. It guides ultrafiltration and clotting assessment.
Correct Answer: B
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Q5. A dialysis machine uses a volumetric ultrafiltration control system. What is the
primary advantage of this system?
A. It eliminates the need for heparin administration
B. It precisely controls fluid removal by balancing dialysate inflow and outflow
regardless of transmembrane pressure changes
C. It automatically increases blood flow rate to compensate for hypotension
D. It removes the requirement for patient weight measurement
B. It precisely controls fluid removal by balancing dialysate inflow and outflow
regardless of transmembrane pressure changes [CORRECT]
Rationale: Volumetric UF control uses balanced chambers to ensure that the exact
prescribed fluid volume is removed independent of TMP fluctuations, preventing
inaccurate fluid removal caused by pressure changes or dialyzer clotting.
Correct Answer: B
Q6. The blood leak detector alarm activates during treatment. What is the most
appropriate immediate action by the dialysis technician?
A. Silence the alarm and continue dialysis while notifying the nurse
B. Stop the blood pump, clamp the bloodlines, and assess whether blood can be
safely returned to the patient
C. Increase the dialysate flow rate to dilute the leak
D. Decrease the ultrafiltration rate and monitor for 15 minutes
B. Stop the blood pump, clamp the bloodlines, and assess whether blood can be
safely returned to the patient [CORRECT]
Rationale: A blood leak indicates dialyzer membrane rupture or seal failure, allowing
blood to enter dialysate or vice versa; the technician must immediately stop the
blood pump to prevent blood loss and potential hemolysis, then follow facility
protocol for blood return.
Correct Answer: B
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Q7. Which component of the dialysis machine removes dissolved air from the
dialysate before it enters the dialyzer?
A. Carbon filter
B. Deaeration chamber or degassing system
C. Reverse osmosis membrane
D. Ultraviolet light chamber
B. Deaeration chamber or degassing system [CORRECT]
Rationale: The deaeration chamber removes dissolved gases from dialysate under
negative pressure to prevent air from entering the dialyzer blood pathway, which
could cause air embolism or interfere with conductivity monitoring.
Correct Answer: B
Q8. The venous pressure reading is rising steadily during dialysis. Which condition is
the most likely cause?
A. Venous needle disconnection
B. Venous line kinking, clotting, or outflow stenosis
C. Arterial needle against the vessel wall
D. Excessive heparin administration
B. Venous line kinking, clotting, or outflow stenosis [CORRECT]
Rationale: Rising venous pressure indicates increased resistance to blood return,
commonly caused by venous line obstruction, kinking, dialyzer clotting, or vascular
access outflow stenosis. A disconnection would cause a precipitous drop in pressure.
Correct Answer: B
Q9. The arterial pressure monitor displays an increasingly negative value. Which
situation best explains this finding?