Complete Exam-Style Questions with Detailed Rationales | 100%
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TABLE OF CONTENTS
Section 1 | Safe and Effective Care Environment | Q1 – Q18
Section 2 | Health Promotion and Maintenance | Q19 – Q35
Section 3 | Psychosocial Integrity | Q36 – Q53
Section 4 | Physiological Integrity | Q54 – Q70
Instructions: Choose the single best answer. Pass: Level 2 proficiency in 90 minutes.
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SECTION 1: SAFE AND EFFECTIVE CARE ENVIRONMENT Q1 – Q18
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Question 1 of 70
A 68-year-old patient was admitted for pneumonia and is on contact precautions for
MRSA. The nurse is preparing to administer morning medications and enters the room
wearing a gown and gloves. After completing the assessment, the nurse plans to exit
the room. What is the priority action the nurse should take before leaving?
A. Document the assessment findings at the nurses' station
B. Remove gloves and gown inside the room, then perform hand hygiene ✓ CORRECT
C. Perform hand hygiene inside the room and then remove PPE in the hallway
D. Remove the gown first, then the gloves, and exit immediately
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: PPE must be removed inside the room to prevent contamination of the
environment, and hand hygiene must follow doffing to eliminate any residual pathogens.
Removing PPE in the hallway or skipping hand hygiene violates contact precaution
,protocols. Consistent adherence to this sequence protects both healthcare workers and
other patients from multidrug-resistant organism transmission.
Question 2 of 70
A 72-year-old man with a history of orthostatic hypotension is being transferred from
the bed to a chair for the first time after surgery. The unlicensed assistive personnel
offers to help the patient alone. What is the nurse's best response?
A. Allow the UAP to proceed since the patient is cooperative
B. Ask the patient to move himself to the chair to maintain independence
C. Tell the UAP to use a gait belt and hurry to minimize dizziness
D. Assist the UAP and ensure the patient rises slowly with orthostatic vital signs
checked ✓ CORRECT
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Patients with orthostatic hypotension require slow position changes and
often need two-person assists during initial transfers to prevent syncope and falls.
Allowing a single UAP to rush a transfer increases the risk of injury. Checking
orthostatic vital signs before ambulation identifies patients at risk and guides the level
of assistance needed.
Question 3 of 70
A nurse on a busy medical-surgical unit has four patients. The charge nurse asks which
tasks can be delegated to the unlicensed assistive personnel. Which patient care
activity is most appropriate for delegation?
A. Obtaining vital signs on a stable postoperative patient who is 24 hours out from
surgery ✓ CORRECT
B. Teaching a newly diagnosed diabetic patient how to perform blood glucose
monitoring
C. Assessing a patient who returned from the PACU one hour ago
,D. Administering an oral antihypertensive medication to a patient with unstable blood
pressure
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Obtaining vital signs on a stable patient is within the UAP scope of practice
and allows the nurse to focus on assessments and teaching. Teaching, medication
administration, and postoperative assessments require nursing judgment and cannot be
delegated to UAP. Effective delegation improves unit efficiency while maintaining
standards of care.
Question 4 of 70
A patient in the emergency department has a large amount of blood on the floor from a
laceration. The nurse is preparing to clean the spill. What personal protective equipment
is required according to standard precautions?
A. Only gloves because blood is not highly infectious
B. A mask and eye protection but no gown since there is no splash risk
C. Gloves and a gown to prevent contact with blood and other potentially infectious
materials ✓ CORRECT
D. An N95 respirator because blood may contain airborne pathogens
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Standard precautions require gloves and a gown when there is potential for
contact with blood or body fluids during cleaning. Bloodborne pathogens such as
hepatitis B and HIV can be transmitted through mucous membrane or non-intact skin
contact. An N95 respirator is unnecessary for blood spills unless aerosol-generating
procedures are involved.
Question 5 of 70
, A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion to a 45-year-old patient. The
patient states the name and birth date, but the wristband is smudged and difficult to
read. What is the nurse's best action?
A. Proceed with the transfusion since the patient verbally confirmed identity
B. Obtain a new wristband and verify two identifiers before starting the transfusion ✓
CORRECT
C. Ask the patient's roommate to confirm the identity
D. Use the medical record number alone since it is the most reliable identifier
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Two reliable identifiers are required before any blood transfusion, and a
smudged wristband must be replaced to ensure accurate verification. Verbal
confirmation alone or roommate verification does not meet The Joint Commission
patient identification standards. Accurate identification prevents catastrophic
transfusion errors.
Question 6 of 70
A fire breaks out in a patient's room on a medical-surgical unit. The nurse smells smoke
and sees flames near the bedside oxygen. What is the nurse's first action?
A. Activate the fire alarm and rescue patients in immediate danger ✓ CORRECT
B. Attempt to extinguish the fire with an ABC fire extinguisher before alarming
C. Close all doors on the unit and wait for the fire department
D. Remove the oxygen source and then call the operator
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The RACE acronym prioritizes rescuing patients in immediate danger and
activating the alarm before attempting to contain the fire. Extinguishing the fire first
risks delaying rescue and alarm activation, which endangers more patients. Fire safety
training emphasizes that life safety always takes precedence over property protection.
Question 7 of 70