SCI 225 Week 16 Pathophysiology
Final Exam Proctored-Nightingale
College.
Course
SCI 225
Question 1
A patient with left-sided heart failure presents to the emergency department. Which assessment
finding is most indicative of pulmonary congestion?
A. Jugular venous distention
B. Hepatomegaly
C. Bilateral crackles in the lungs
D. Peripheral edema
Answer: C. Bilateral crackles in the lungs
Rationale: Left-sided heart failure causes blood to back up into the pulmonary circulation,
resulting in pulmonary edema and crackles. Jugular venous distention, hepatomegaly, and
peripheral edema are more commonly associated with right-sided heart failure.
Question 2
A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which
finding would the nurse expect?
A. pH 7.48
B. Serum glucose 550 mg/dL
C. Serum potassium 2.8 mEq/L
D. Serum bicarbonate 30 mEq/L
Answer: B. Serum glucose 550 mg/dL
Rationale: DKA is characterized by hyperglycemia, metabolic acidosis, ketone production, and
dehydration. Patients often present with glucose levels exceeding 250 mg/dL.
Question 3
A patient with chronic kidney disease develops anemia. What is the primary pathophysiologic
cause?
,A. Excess iron loss
B. Increased red blood cell destruction
C. Decreased erythropoietin production
D. Vitamin K deficiency
Answer: C. Decreased erythropoietin production
Rationale: The kidneys produce erythropoietin, which stimulates red blood cell production.
Damaged kidneys produce insufficient erythropoietin, resulting in anemia.
Question 4
Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely to cause cardiac dysrhythmias characterized by
peaked T waves?
A. Hyponatremia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypomagnesemia
Answer: C. Hyperkalemia
Rationale: Hyperkalemia alters cardiac conduction and commonly produces tall, peaked T
waves on the ECG, increasing the risk of life-threatening arrhythmias.
Question 5
A patient diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) develops barrel chest
formation. What is the underlying cause?
A. Collapse of alveoli
B. Hyperinflation of the lungs
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Pleural effusion
Answer: B. Hyperinflation of the lungs
Rationale: Air trapping and loss of elastic recoil in COPD cause lung hyperinflation, leading to
an increased anterior-posterior chest diameter known as barrel chest.
Question 6
Which pathophysiologic process is responsible for the development of edema in heart failure?
,A. Increased plasma proteins
B. Reduced capillary hydrostatic pressure
C. Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure
D. Increased lymphatic drainage
Answer: C. Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure
Rationale: Heart failure leads to venous congestion, increasing capillary hydrostatic pressure
and forcing fluid into the interstitial spaces, resulting in edema.
Question 7
A patient with Graves disease is expected to exhibit which clinical manifestation?
A. Bradycardia
B. Weight gain
C. Heat intolerance
D. Cold intolerance
Answer: C. Heat intolerance
Rationale: Graves disease causes hyperthyroidism, increasing metabolic rate and leading to heat
intolerance, weight loss, tachycardia, and nervousness.
Question 8
A patient with liver cirrhosis develops ascites. What is the primary mechanism responsible?
A. Increased albumin production
B. Decreased portal venous pressure
C. Portal hypertension and hypoalbuminemia
D. Increased erythropoietin production
Answer: C. Portal hypertension and hypoalbuminemia
Rationale: Cirrhosis causes portal hypertension and decreased albumin synthesis, leading to
fluid accumulation in the abdominal cavity.
Question 9
Which finding is most characteristic of an acute inflammatory response?
, A. Leukopenia
B. Vasoconstriction
C. Redness, heat, and swelling
D. Decreased capillary permeability
Answer: C. Redness, heat, and swelling
Rationale: Acute inflammation is characterized by vasodilation and increased capillary
permeability, producing redness, warmth, swelling, and pain.
Question 10
A patient experiences a cerebrovascular accident (stroke). Which pathophysiologic event most
commonly causes an ischemic stroke?
A. Rupture of a cerebral aneurysm
B. Obstruction of cerebral blood flow by a thrombus
C. Trauma to the skull
D. Bacterial infection of brain tissue
Answer: B. Obstruction of cerebral blood flow by a thrombus
Rationale: Ischemic strokes account for the majority of strokes and occur when a thrombus or
embolus blocks blood flow to part of the brain, resulting in tissue ischemia and infarction.
Question 11
A patient with iron-deficiency anemia is most likely to exhibit which laboratory finding?
A. Elevated hemoglobin
B. Microcytic, hypochromic red blood cells
C. Increased ferritin levels
D. Elevated hematocrit
Answer: B. Microcytic, hypochromic red blood cells
Rationale: Iron deficiency results in smaller-than-normal red blood cells with reduced
hemoglobin content.
Question 12
Which mechanism contributes most directly to hypertension in chronic kidney disease?
A. Reduced renin secretion
B. Increased sodium and water retention
Final Exam Proctored-Nightingale
College.
Course
SCI 225
Question 1
A patient with left-sided heart failure presents to the emergency department. Which assessment
finding is most indicative of pulmonary congestion?
A. Jugular venous distention
B. Hepatomegaly
C. Bilateral crackles in the lungs
D. Peripheral edema
Answer: C. Bilateral crackles in the lungs
Rationale: Left-sided heart failure causes blood to back up into the pulmonary circulation,
resulting in pulmonary edema and crackles. Jugular venous distention, hepatomegaly, and
peripheral edema are more commonly associated with right-sided heart failure.
Question 2
A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which
finding would the nurse expect?
A. pH 7.48
B. Serum glucose 550 mg/dL
C. Serum potassium 2.8 mEq/L
D. Serum bicarbonate 30 mEq/L
Answer: B. Serum glucose 550 mg/dL
Rationale: DKA is characterized by hyperglycemia, metabolic acidosis, ketone production, and
dehydration. Patients often present with glucose levels exceeding 250 mg/dL.
Question 3
A patient with chronic kidney disease develops anemia. What is the primary pathophysiologic
cause?
,A. Excess iron loss
B. Increased red blood cell destruction
C. Decreased erythropoietin production
D. Vitamin K deficiency
Answer: C. Decreased erythropoietin production
Rationale: The kidneys produce erythropoietin, which stimulates red blood cell production.
Damaged kidneys produce insufficient erythropoietin, resulting in anemia.
Question 4
Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely to cause cardiac dysrhythmias characterized by
peaked T waves?
A. Hyponatremia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypomagnesemia
Answer: C. Hyperkalemia
Rationale: Hyperkalemia alters cardiac conduction and commonly produces tall, peaked T
waves on the ECG, increasing the risk of life-threatening arrhythmias.
Question 5
A patient diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) develops barrel chest
formation. What is the underlying cause?
A. Collapse of alveoli
B. Hyperinflation of the lungs
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Pleural effusion
Answer: B. Hyperinflation of the lungs
Rationale: Air trapping and loss of elastic recoil in COPD cause lung hyperinflation, leading to
an increased anterior-posterior chest diameter known as barrel chest.
Question 6
Which pathophysiologic process is responsible for the development of edema in heart failure?
,A. Increased plasma proteins
B. Reduced capillary hydrostatic pressure
C. Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure
D. Increased lymphatic drainage
Answer: C. Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure
Rationale: Heart failure leads to venous congestion, increasing capillary hydrostatic pressure
and forcing fluid into the interstitial spaces, resulting in edema.
Question 7
A patient with Graves disease is expected to exhibit which clinical manifestation?
A. Bradycardia
B. Weight gain
C. Heat intolerance
D. Cold intolerance
Answer: C. Heat intolerance
Rationale: Graves disease causes hyperthyroidism, increasing metabolic rate and leading to heat
intolerance, weight loss, tachycardia, and nervousness.
Question 8
A patient with liver cirrhosis develops ascites. What is the primary mechanism responsible?
A. Increased albumin production
B. Decreased portal venous pressure
C. Portal hypertension and hypoalbuminemia
D. Increased erythropoietin production
Answer: C. Portal hypertension and hypoalbuminemia
Rationale: Cirrhosis causes portal hypertension and decreased albumin synthesis, leading to
fluid accumulation in the abdominal cavity.
Question 9
Which finding is most characteristic of an acute inflammatory response?
, A. Leukopenia
B. Vasoconstriction
C. Redness, heat, and swelling
D. Decreased capillary permeability
Answer: C. Redness, heat, and swelling
Rationale: Acute inflammation is characterized by vasodilation and increased capillary
permeability, producing redness, warmth, swelling, and pain.
Question 10
A patient experiences a cerebrovascular accident (stroke). Which pathophysiologic event most
commonly causes an ischemic stroke?
A. Rupture of a cerebral aneurysm
B. Obstruction of cerebral blood flow by a thrombus
C. Trauma to the skull
D. Bacterial infection of brain tissue
Answer: B. Obstruction of cerebral blood flow by a thrombus
Rationale: Ischemic strokes account for the majority of strokes and occur when a thrombus or
embolus blocks blood flow to part of the brain, resulting in tissue ischemia and infarction.
Question 11
A patient with iron-deficiency anemia is most likely to exhibit which laboratory finding?
A. Elevated hemoglobin
B. Microcytic, hypochromic red blood cells
C. Increased ferritin levels
D. Elevated hematocrit
Answer: B. Microcytic, hypochromic red blood cells
Rationale: Iron deficiency results in smaller-than-normal red blood cells with reduced
hemoglobin content.
Question 12
Which mechanism contributes most directly to hypertension in chronic kidney disease?
A. Reduced renin secretion
B. Increased sodium and water retention
