Page 1 of 50
31 May 2026
WGU D115 master set-Advanced Pathophysiology for the
Advanced Practice Nurse 2026/2027 Latest PREP EXAM with 300
Questions and Correct Answers / D 115 Exam Certification Exam
COVERING RECENT AND MOST TESTED QUESTIONS A+ GRADE
ASSURED
Which type of genetic disease affects males more frequently than females? - correct answer-Sex-
Linked recessive. Since males only have one X and one Y, if the affected chromosome has the illness,
it will be expressed.
In which two conditions are chromosomal abnormalities the leading known cause? - correct
answer-Intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage. Chromosome abnormalities are the leading
known cause of intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage.
What are three examples of prenatal diagnostic studies? - correct answer-Chorionic villus
sampling (CVS), amniocentesis, and preimplantation genetic testing (PGT) are examples of prenatal
diagnostic studies and are performed in vitro. CVS is a form of genetic testing that provides genetic
information found in utero and is usually performed between weeks 11 and 14 of pregnancy. An
amniocentesis is a form of genetic testing that evaluates amniotic fluid and is usually performed
during the second trimester, between weeks 15 and 20 of pregnancy. PGT is performed on the
embryo prior to implantation.
Which genetic disorder is characterized by the presence of a zygote having one chromosome with
a normal complement of genes and one chromosome with a missing gene? - correct answer-Cri
du chat syndrome (translated as "cry of the cat") is caused by a DNA deletion. This term describes
the cry often heard from a baby affected by the syndrome. Cri du chat syndrome can present as a
microcephalic, low birth-weight baby with a piercing cry.
How can an X-linked recessive disease skip generations? - correct answer-The disease can be
transmitted through female carriers.
Since females have two copies of the X chromosome, the mother may provide an unaffected X to a
daughter or son. Furthermore, a daughter may not show signs of the disease because she has the
other X (the only X the father can give to a female) to cancel it out.
Which type of risk is referred to as the ratio of the disease rate among the entire population to the
disease rate in an unexposed population? - correct answer-Relative risk is a ratio of probability, not
an actual occurrence of disease.
, Page 2 of 50
31 May 2026
What are the empirical risks for most multifactorial diseases based on? - correct answer-Many
factors from lifestyle to genetics affect multifactorial diseases. Observation and evaluation of each
case individually provides the most thorough and accurate assessment.
What refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair. - correct answer-The imprinted gene is the silent
gene of a gene pair.
What is the primary reason that some older adults have impaired inflammation and wound healing?
- correct answer-The underlying chronic illness exists.
A generalized inflammatory response seen in chronic illness depletes the body's reserves to fight
against illness.
Which cells are the body's primary defense against parasite invasion? - correct answer-Eosinophils
are the body's primary defense against parasites.
What Phagocytes bacteria? - correct answer-Macrophages work by eating or phagocytosing
bacteria.
What is the first response to a foreign pathogen? - correct answer-Helper T cells
Which characteristic is the most important determinant of immunogenicity when considering the
antigen? - correct answer-Immunogenicity is primarily based on the ability to recognize something
foreign.
How are erythrocytes destroyed when mismatched blood is administered, causing an ABO
incompatibility? - correct answer-The complement pathway is activated in response to blood
incompatibility.
What is the hypersensitivity reaction that causes atopic dermatitis? - correct answer-An immediate
(type I) hypersensitivity reaction causes atopic dermatitis.
Which four infections are considered fungal infections? - correct answer-Infection with a fungus is
called mycosis and includes dermatophytes (e.g., tineas, which refers to several skin mycoses,
including ringworm and athlete's foot) and yeasts, which include candida and aspergillus.
, Page 3 of 50
31 May 2026
When is the earliest after sexual transmission of HIV that lab results can detect infection? - correct
answer-Lab testing can detect HIV RNA 4 to 10 days after sexual transmission, whereas HIV
antibody testing may take 23 to 90 days to result in a positive test. Repeat testing may be needed to
rule out a false negative test due to testing too soon after exposure, especially if a high likelihood of
exposure is suspected.
What is a characteristic of exotoxins? - correct answer-Exotoxins are released during bacterial
growth.
Which dietary lifestyle choice has been associated with a decreased risk for developing colon
cancer? - correct answer-The results of decreased fat consumption have been widely studied and
have demonstrated a decreased risk of developing colon cancer.
Which cancer is an individual who has worked with asbestos for over 40 years most likely to
develop? - correct answer-Asbestos exposure results in an increased risk of lung and lung lining
cancer.
Which statement is true regarding ultraviolet (UV) light?
The degree of damage is not affected by the light's wavelength. - correct answer-UV light causes
basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma when the UVB rays hit DNA strands, causing
thymine base pairs that are side by side to pair together, becoming thymine dimers. These thymine
dimers lead to cell death or cancer.
Which cancer does exercise have a convincing impact on reducing? - correct answer-Exercise-
induced myokines cause apoptosis of colon cancer cells.
Low healthcare literacy is recognized as a major risk factor in blood pressure control and has been
shown to have adverse effects on health outcomes.
true or false - correct answer-TRUE
By providing patient education at the appropriate literacy level, improved health outcomes may
result.
One of the goals of the National Action Plan to Improve Health Literacy is to incorporate research
and evidence-based plans of treatment from childhood through university-level education in a
manner consistent with an individual's literacy level.
, Page 4 of 50
31 May 2026
True or false - correct answer-True
Ensuring the individual can understand all elements of a treatment plan is crucial for understanding
and compliance.
What is a red flag for low healthcare literacy? - correct answer-Low literacy often leads to
perceived noncompliance to medical instructions, including medication instructions. Ensuring the
patient fully understands all instructions is critical for understanding.
Amniocentesis is recommended for pregnant women with certain health histories.
Which health history would result in an amniocentesis recommendation? - correct answer-Those
who have a family history of genetic disorders
Studies have identified several genes that play a role in the prevention of obesity.
What do these genes influence? - correct answer-Regulation of appetite-Research has shown that
genetic mutations may cause alterations in the regulation of appetite.
Which concept is data reporting that sickle cell disease affects approximately 1 in 600 black
Americans an example of? - correct answer-Prevalence tells us how often disease is seen in a
population, which includes all people with the disease at a given time, at any stage in the disease
progression.
What describes a chromosomal defect caused by Prader-Willi syndrome? - correct answer-Prader-
Willi syndrome is caused by a disorder of a portion of chromosome 15. Normally, a portion of this
chromosome is inherited from both parents. With Prader-Willi syndrome, the chromosome inherited
from the father is problematic.
Which action is a purpose of the inflammatory process? - correct answer-Prevent infection of the
injured tissue
The inflammatory response is a defense mechanism designed to remove damaged tissue so the body
can heal.
Which leukocytes are elevated in response to acute inflammatory reactions when considering white
blood cell differentials?
Monocytes
Neutrophils
Basophils
31 May 2026
WGU D115 master set-Advanced Pathophysiology for the
Advanced Practice Nurse 2026/2027 Latest PREP EXAM with 300
Questions and Correct Answers / D 115 Exam Certification Exam
COVERING RECENT AND MOST TESTED QUESTIONS A+ GRADE
ASSURED
Which type of genetic disease affects males more frequently than females? - correct answer-Sex-
Linked recessive. Since males only have one X and one Y, if the affected chromosome has the illness,
it will be expressed.
In which two conditions are chromosomal abnormalities the leading known cause? - correct
answer-Intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage. Chromosome abnormalities are the leading
known cause of intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage.
What are three examples of prenatal diagnostic studies? - correct answer-Chorionic villus
sampling (CVS), amniocentesis, and preimplantation genetic testing (PGT) are examples of prenatal
diagnostic studies and are performed in vitro. CVS is a form of genetic testing that provides genetic
information found in utero and is usually performed between weeks 11 and 14 of pregnancy. An
amniocentesis is a form of genetic testing that evaluates amniotic fluid and is usually performed
during the second trimester, between weeks 15 and 20 of pregnancy. PGT is performed on the
embryo prior to implantation.
Which genetic disorder is characterized by the presence of a zygote having one chromosome with
a normal complement of genes and one chromosome with a missing gene? - correct answer-Cri
du chat syndrome (translated as "cry of the cat") is caused by a DNA deletion. This term describes
the cry often heard from a baby affected by the syndrome. Cri du chat syndrome can present as a
microcephalic, low birth-weight baby with a piercing cry.
How can an X-linked recessive disease skip generations? - correct answer-The disease can be
transmitted through female carriers.
Since females have two copies of the X chromosome, the mother may provide an unaffected X to a
daughter or son. Furthermore, a daughter may not show signs of the disease because she has the
other X (the only X the father can give to a female) to cancel it out.
Which type of risk is referred to as the ratio of the disease rate among the entire population to the
disease rate in an unexposed population? - correct answer-Relative risk is a ratio of probability, not
an actual occurrence of disease.
, Page 2 of 50
31 May 2026
What are the empirical risks for most multifactorial diseases based on? - correct answer-Many
factors from lifestyle to genetics affect multifactorial diseases. Observation and evaluation of each
case individually provides the most thorough and accurate assessment.
What refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair. - correct answer-The imprinted gene is the silent
gene of a gene pair.
What is the primary reason that some older adults have impaired inflammation and wound healing?
- correct answer-The underlying chronic illness exists.
A generalized inflammatory response seen in chronic illness depletes the body's reserves to fight
against illness.
Which cells are the body's primary defense against parasite invasion? - correct answer-Eosinophils
are the body's primary defense against parasites.
What Phagocytes bacteria? - correct answer-Macrophages work by eating or phagocytosing
bacteria.
What is the first response to a foreign pathogen? - correct answer-Helper T cells
Which characteristic is the most important determinant of immunogenicity when considering the
antigen? - correct answer-Immunogenicity is primarily based on the ability to recognize something
foreign.
How are erythrocytes destroyed when mismatched blood is administered, causing an ABO
incompatibility? - correct answer-The complement pathway is activated in response to blood
incompatibility.
What is the hypersensitivity reaction that causes atopic dermatitis? - correct answer-An immediate
(type I) hypersensitivity reaction causes atopic dermatitis.
Which four infections are considered fungal infections? - correct answer-Infection with a fungus is
called mycosis and includes dermatophytes (e.g., tineas, which refers to several skin mycoses,
including ringworm and athlete's foot) and yeasts, which include candida and aspergillus.
, Page 3 of 50
31 May 2026
When is the earliest after sexual transmission of HIV that lab results can detect infection? - correct
answer-Lab testing can detect HIV RNA 4 to 10 days after sexual transmission, whereas HIV
antibody testing may take 23 to 90 days to result in a positive test. Repeat testing may be needed to
rule out a false negative test due to testing too soon after exposure, especially if a high likelihood of
exposure is suspected.
What is a characteristic of exotoxins? - correct answer-Exotoxins are released during bacterial
growth.
Which dietary lifestyle choice has been associated with a decreased risk for developing colon
cancer? - correct answer-The results of decreased fat consumption have been widely studied and
have demonstrated a decreased risk of developing colon cancer.
Which cancer is an individual who has worked with asbestos for over 40 years most likely to
develop? - correct answer-Asbestos exposure results in an increased risk of lung and lung lining
cancer.
Which statement is true regarding ultraviolet (UV) light?
The degree of damage is not affected by the light's wavelength. - correct answer-UV light causes
basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma when the UVB rays hit DNA strands, causing
thymine base pairs that are side by side to pair together, becoming thymine dimers. These thymine
dimers lead to cell death or cancer.
Which cancer does exercise have a convincing impact on reducing? - correct answer-Exercise-
induced myokines cause apoptosis of colon cancer cells.
Low healthcare literacy is recognized as a major risk factor in blood pressure control and has been
shown to have adverse effects on health outcomes.
true or false - correct answer-TRUE
By providing patient education at the appropriate literacy level, improved health outcomes may
result.
One of the goals of the National Action Plan to Improve Health Literacy is to incorporate research
and evidence-based plans of treatment from childhood through university-level education in a
manner consistent with an individual's literacy level.
, Page 4 of 50
31 May 2026
True or false - correct answer-True
Ensuring the individual can understand all elements of a treatment plan is crucial for understanding
and compliance.
What is a red flag for low healthcare literacy? - correct answer-Low literacy often leads to
perceived noncompliance to medical instructions, including medication instructions. Ensuring the
patient fully understands all instructions is critical for understanding.
Amniocentesis is recommended for pregnant women with certain health histories.
Which health history would result in an amniocentesis recommendation? - correct answer-Those
who have a family history of genetic disorders
Studies have identified several genes that play a role in the prevention of obesity.
What do these genes influence? - correct answer-Regulation of appetite-Research has shown that
genetic mutations may cause alterations in the regulation of appetite.
Which concept is data reporting that sickle cell disease affects approximately 1 in 600 black
Americans an example of? - correct answer-Prevalence tells us how often disease is seen in a
population, which includes all people with the disease at a given time, at any stage in the disease
progression.
What describes a chromosomal defect caused by Prader-Willi syndrome? - correct answer-Prader-
Willi syndrome is caused by a disorder of a portion of chromosome 15. Normally, a portion of this
chromosome is inherited from both parents. With Prader-Willi syndrome, the chromosome inherited
from the father is problematic.
Which action is a purpose of the inflammatory process? - correct answer-Prevent infection of the
injured tissue
The inflammatory response is a defense mechanism designed to remove damaged tissue so the body
can heal.
Which leukocytes are elevated in response to acute inflammatory reactions when considering white
blood cell differentials?
Monocytes
Neutrophils
Basophils
