Page 1 of 255
NCLEX-RN TYPE QUESTIONS FOR EXAM WITH
CORRECT ANSWERS,RATIONALES AND WHY
THE OTHERS ARE NOT CORRECT NEWEST 2026
EXAM LATEST VERSION SOLVED QUESTIONS &
ANSWERS VERIFIED 100 %
NCLEX-RN Practice Questions For 2026
An RN has been assigned a pregnant client who has heart disease. The client's
condition has been diagnosed as New York Heart Association class II cardiac
disease. Which important fact(s) about activites of daily living while pregnant
would the RN teach this client? Select all that apply.
A. Increase fiber in the diet
B. Anticipate the need for rest breaks after activity
C. Notify the HCP if her rings do not fit
D. Maintain bed rest with bathroom privileges
E. Start a low-impact aerobic exericise program
A. Increase fiber in the diet
B. Anticipate the need for rest breaks after activity
C. Notify the HCP if her rings do not fit
Why the Correct Options Are Right
• A. Increase fiber in the diet
o Straining during bowel movements (the Valsalva maneuver)
significantly increases intrathoracic pressure and places sudden,
dangerous stress on a compromised heart. High-fiber foods and
adequate fluids prevent constipation and straining.
• B. Anticipate the need for rest breaks after activity
o New York Heart Association (NYHA) Class II cardiac disease means
the client is comfortable at rest, but ordinary physical activity results in
fatigue, palpitations, dyspnea, or anginal pain. Scheduled rest periods
, Page 2 of 255
help the heart adapt to the increased blood volume of pregnancy
without overexertion.
• C. Notify the HCP if her rings do not fit
o Rings not fitting indicates peripheral edema, which can be an early sign
of worsening fluid retention, heart failure, or preeclampsia. A pregnant
cardiac client must report sudden swelling to their healthcare provider
immediately.
Why the Other Options Are Wrong
• ❌ D. Maintain bed rest with bathroom privileges
o Strict bed rest is not indicated for a Class II cardiac client and actually
increases the risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is already
elevated during pregnancy. Activity is allowed but must be balanced
with rest.
• ❌ E. Start a low-impact aerobic exercise program
o Pregnancy naturally increases cardiac output by 30% to 50%. Starting
a new exercise program puts unnecessary workload on a client who
already experiences symptoms with ordinary activities.
A client with type 2 diabetes is scheduled for an intravenous pyelogram (IVP).
Which assessment is most important for the RN to complete before the test is
performed?
A. Baseline vital signs
B. Current medication list
C. Coagulation status
D. Electrolyte levels
B. Current medication list
Why the Correct Option Is Right
• B. Current medication list
o An intravenous pyelogram (IVP) utilizes an iodinated contrast dye to
clearly map out and view the kidneys, ureters, and bladder.
o Clients diagnosed with type 2 diabetes are very frequently prescribed
metformin to help control their blood sugar.
o When metformin interacts with intravenous contrast dye, the risk of
developing sudden contrast-induced nephropathy (kidney failure)
jumps drastically.
o If the kidneys fail while metformin is still circulating in the body, the
drug builds up to dangerous levels and triggers a severe, life-
threatening metabolic emergency known as lactic acidosis.
o Checking the medication list allows the nurse to safely catch and hold
metformin therapy 24 to 48 hours prior to the procedure and keep it on
hold for 48 hours afterward. [1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6]
Why the Other Options Are Wrong
• ❌ A. Baseline vital signs
, Page 3 of 255
o Tracking vital signs is a routine pre-procedural nursing requirement for
any baseline record, but it does not reveal specific drug-to-dye
contraindications that pose a critical toxic threat to the client.
• ❌ C. Coagulation status
o An IVP is a non-invasive, diagnostic imaging x-ray. Because it involves
an injection into a peripheral vein rather than an organ biopsy or an
arterial surgical cut, major bleeding is not an anticipated complication
and tracking clotting factors is a low priority. [1, 2]
• ❌ D. Electrolyte levels
o Monitoring electrolytes provides good systemic data, but it does not
replace or outweigh the necessity of scanning the medication list for
high-risk diabetic drugs like metformin. [1, 2]
The RN is teaching a client who has chronic urinary tract infections about a
prescription for ciprofloxacin 500 mg PO bid (twice daily). Which side effect(s)
could the client expect while taking this medication? Select all that apply.
A. Photosensitivity
B. Dyspepsia
C. Diarrhea
D. Urinary frequency
E. Anemia
A. Photosensitivity
B. Dyspepsia
Why the Correct Options Are Right
• A. Photosensitivity
o Ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic. This drug class
chemically reacts to ultraviolet (UV) rays, making the skin highly
sensitive to sunlight.
o Exposure can trigger severe, sunburn-like rashes, blistering, or
hyperpigmentation. Clients must be taught to wear sunscreen,
protective clothing, and sunglasses outdoors. [1, 2, 3]
• B. Dyspepsia
o Fluoroquinolones frequently irritate the mucosal lining of the upper
gastrointestinal tract.
o This commonly causes dyspepsia (indigestion, heartburn, or stomach
discomfort). Taking the medication with food can help alleviate this
upset. [1, 2, 3, 4, 5]
• C. Diarrhea
o Broad-spectrum antibiotics like ciprofloxacin destroy both the target
pathogens and the healthy, normal flora inside the gastrointestinal
tract.
o This disruption frequently triggers mild-to-moderate diarrhea. (Note: If
the diarrhea becomes watery or bloody, the client must report it
, Page 4 of 255
immediately as it could indicate a dangerous Clostridioides difficile
superinfection). [1, 2]
Why the Other Options Are Wrong
• ❌ D. Urinary frequency
o Urinary frequency is a hallmark symptom of the underlying urinary
tract infection (UTI) itself, not a side effect of the antibiotic. As
ciprofloxacin clears the bacterial infection, urinary frequency will
actually decrease. [1]
• ❌ E. Anemia
o Ciprofloxacin does not typically cause bone marrow suppression or red
blood cell destruction. Anemia is not an expected or common side
effect associated with routine fluoroquinolone therapy.
An RN working on a hospice unit finds a client crying. The client states that he
is afraid to die. Which action (s) would the RN implement? Select all that apply.
A. Sit quietly with the client and listen to his concerns
B. Provide the client with privacy
C. Give the client an antianxiety medication
D. Contact the client's spiritual counselor or minister
E. Assess the client for signs of impending death.
A. Sit quietly with the client and listen to his concerns
D. Contact the client's spiritual counselor or minister
Why the Correct Options Are Right
• A. Sit quietly with the client and listen to his concerns
o Therapeutic presence and active listening are core nursing
interventions in hospice care.
o Sitting quietly with a crying client shows empathy, validates their
feelings, and provides a safe space for them to process their existential
fear of death.
• D. Contact the client's spiritual counselor or minister
o Fear of dying often involves spiritual or existential distress.
o Hospice care utilizes an interdisciplinary approach, and involving a
spiritual counselor or minister ensures the client receives specialized,
holistic support tailored to their faith and belief system.
Why the Other Options Are Wrong
• ❌ B. Provide the client with privacy
o Leaving a crying, terrified client alone in their room under the guise of
"privacy" constitutes abandonment. The client is explicitly expressing a
need for connection and support.
• ❌ C. Give the client an antianxiety medication
o Pharmacological interventions should not be the first line of defense for
normal, situational grief and emotional expression. Administering a
sedative to stop a patient from crying avoids the underlying emotional
need and creates unnecessary side effects.
NCLEX-RN TYPE QUESTIONS FOR EXAM WITH
CORRECT ANSWERS,RATIONALES AND WHY
THE OTHERS ARE NOT CORRECT NEWEST 2026
EXAM LATEST VERSION SOLVED QUESTIONS &
ANSWERS VERIFIED 100 %
NCLEX-RN Practice Questions For 2026
An RN has been assigned a pregnant client who has heart disease. The client's
condition has been diagnosed as New York Heart Association class II cardiac
disease. Which important fact(s) about activites of daily living while pregnant
would the RN teach this client? Select all that apply.
A. Increase fiber in the diet
B. Anticipate the need for rest breaks after activity
C. Notify the HCP if her rings do not fit
D. Maintain bed rest with bathroom privileges
E. Start a low-impact aerobic exericise program
A. Increase fiber in the diet
B. Anticipate the need for rest breaks after activity
C. Notify the HCP if her rings do not fit
Why the Correct Options Are Right
• A. Increase fiber in the diet
o Straining during bowel movements (the Valsalva maneuver)
significantly increases intrathoracic pressure and places sudden,
dangerous stress on a compromised heart. High-fiber foods and
adequate fluids prevent constipation and straining.
• B. Anticipate the need for rest breaks after activity
o New York Heart Association (NYHA) Class II cardiac disease means
the client is comfortable at rest, but ordinary physical activity results in
fatigue, palpitations, dyspnea, or anginal pain. Scheduled rest periods
, Page 2 of 255
help the heart adapt to the increased blood volume of pregnancy
without overexertion.
• C. Notify the HCP if her rings do not fit
o Rings not fitting indicates peripheral edema, which can be an early sign
of worsening fluid retention, heart failure, or preeclampsia. A pregnant
cardiac client must report sudden swelling to their healthcare provider
immediately.
Why the Other Options Are Wrong
• ❌ D. Maintain bed rest with bathroom privileges
o Strict bed rest is not indicated for a Class II cardiac client and actually
increases the risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is already
elevated during pregnancy. Activity is allowed but must be balanced
with rest.
• ❌ E. Start a low-impact aerobic exercise program
o Pregnancy naturally increases cardiac output by 30% to 50%. Starting
a new exercise program puts unnecessary workload on a client who
already experiences symptoms with ordinary activities.
A client with type 2 diabetes is scheduled for an intravenous pyelogram (IVP).
Which assessment is most important for the RN to complete before the test is
performed?
A. Baseline vital signs
B. Current medication list
C. Coagulation status
D. Electrolyte levels
B. Current medication list
Why the Correct Option Is Right
• B. Current medication list
o An intravenous pyelogram (IVP) utilizes an iodinated contrast dye to
clearly map out and view the kidneys, ureters, and bladder.
o Clients diagnosed with type 2 diabetes are very frequently prescribed
metformin to help control their blood sugar.
o When metformin interacts with intravenous contrast dye, the risk of
developing sudden contrast-induced nephropathy (kidney failure)
jumps drastically.
o If the kidneys fail while metformin is still circulating in the body, the
drug builds up to dangerous levels and triggers a severe, life-
threatening metabolic emergency known as lactic acidosis.
o Checking the medication list allows the nurse to safely catch and hold
metformin therapy 24 to 48 hours prior to the procedure and keep it on
hold for 48 hours afterward. [1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6]
Why the Other Options Are Wrong
• ❌ A. Baseline vital signs
, Page 3 of 255
o Tracking vital signs is a routine pre-procedural nursing requirement for
any baseline record, but it does not reveal specific drug-to-dye
contraindications that pose a critical toxic threat to the client.
• ❌ C. Coagulation status
o An IVP is a non-invasive, diagnostic imaging x-ray. Because it involves
an injection into a peripheral vein rather than an organ biopsy or an
arterial surgical cut, major bleeding is not an anticipated complication
and tracking clotting factors is a low priority. [1, 2]
• ❌ D. Electrolyte levels
o Monitoring electrolytes provides good systemic data, but it does not
replace or outweigh the necessity of scanning the medication list for
high-risk diabetic drugs like metformin. [1, 2]
The RN is teaching a client who has chronic urinary tract infections about a
prescription for ciprofloxacin 500 mg PO bid (twice daily). Which side effect(s)
could the client expect while taking this medication? Select all that apply.
A. Photosensitivity
B. Dyspepsia
C. Diarrhea
D. Urinary frequency
E. Anemia
A. Photosensitivity
B. Dyspepsia
Why the Correct Options Are Right
• A. Photosensitivity
o Ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic. This drug class
chemically reacts to ultraviolet (UV) rays, making the skin highly
sensitive to sunlight.
o Exposure can trigger severe, sunburn-like rashes, blistering, or
hyperpigmentation. Clients must be taught to wear sunscreen,
protective clothing, and sunglasses outdoors. [1, 2, 3]
• B. Dyspepsia
o Fluoroquinolones frequently irritate the mucosal lining of the upper
gastrointestinal tract.
o This commonly causes dyspepsia (indigestion, heartburn, or stomach
discomfort). Taking the medication with food can help alleviate this
upset. [1, 2, 3, 4, 5]
• C. Diarrhea
o Broad-spectrum antibiotics like ciprofloxacin destroy both the target
pathogens and the healthy, normal flora inside the gastrointestinal
tract.
o This disruption frequently triggers mild-to-moderate diarrhea. (Note: If
the diarrhea becomes watery or bloody, the client must report it
, Page 4 of 255
immediately as it could indicate a dangerous Clostridioides difficile
superinfection). [1, 2]
Why the Other Options Are Wrong
• ❌ D. Urinary frequency
o Urinary frequency is a hallmark symptom of the underlying urinary
tract infection (UTI) itself, not a side effect of the antibiotic. As
ciprofloxacin clears the bacterial infection, urinary frequency will
actually decrease. [1]
• ❌ E. Anemia
o Ciprofloxacin does not typically cause bone marrow suppression or red
blood cell destruction. Anemia is not an expected or common side
effect associated with routine fluoroquinolone therapy.
An RN working on a hospice unit finds a client crying. The client states that he
is afraid to die. Which action (s) would the RN implement? Select all that apply.
A. Sit quietly with the client and listen to his concerns
B. Provide the client with privacy
C. Give the client an antianxiety medication
D. Contact the client's spiritual counselor or minister
E. Assess the client for signs of impending death.
A. Sit quietly with the client and listen to his concerns
D. Contact the client's spiritual counselor or minister
Why the Correct Options Are Right
• A. Sit quietly with the client and listen to his concerns
o Therapeutic presence and active listening are core nursing
interventions in hospice care.
o Sitting quietly with a crying client shows empathy, validates their
feelings, and provides a safe space for them to process their existential
fear of death.
• D. Contact the client's spiritual counselor or minister
o Fear of dying often involves spiritual or existential distress.
o Hospice care utilizes an interdisciplinary approach, and involving a
spiritual counselor or minister ensures the client receives specialized,
holistic support tailored to their faith and belief system.
Why the Other Options Are Wrong
• ❌ B. Provide the client with privacy
o Leaving a crying, terrified client alone in their room under the guise of
"privacy" constitutes abandonment. The client is explicitly expressing a
need for connection and support.
• ❌ C. Give the client an antianxiety medication
o Pharmacological interventions should not be the first line of defense for
normal, situational grief and emotional expression. Administering a
sedative to stop a patient from crying avoids the underlying emotional
need and creates unnecessary side effects.
