BIOD351 / BIOD 351 Final Exam
| Latest Update |Newly Released
Pharmacology | Questions & Answers | Grade A
Guaranteed Pass | 100% Correct - Portage Learning
Q1: A patient with hypertension and diabetes is starting antihypertensive therapy. The
physician prescribes a medication that specifically inhibits the conversion of angiotensin I to
angiotensin II. Which medication class is being prescribed?
A. Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers (ARBs)
B. Calcium Channel Blockers (CCBs)
C. Angiotens in -Converting Enzyme (ACE) Inhibitors [CORRECT]
D. Beta-blockers
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because ACE inhibitors (e.g., lisinopril, enalapril) specifically block the
angiotensin-converting enzyme, preventing the formation of Angiotensin II, a potent
vasoconstrictor. This mechanism leads to vasodilation and decreased aldosterone secretion,
making it a first-line choice for patients with diabetes to provide renal protection.
Q2: A patient is brought to the emergency department with severe hypertension. The nurse
calculates the patient's cardiac output using the formula CO = HR × SV. If the patient's heart
rate is 90 beats per minute and the stroke volume is 75 mL, what is the cardiac output in liters
per minute?
A. 6.0 L/min
B. 6.75 L/min [CORRECT]
C. 7.5 L/min
D. 5.25 L/min
,Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because cardiac output is calculated by multiplying the heart rate (90 bpm)
by the stroke volume (75 mL), resulting in 6,750 mL/min, which converts to 6.75 L/min. This
calculation is essential for assessing hemodynamic status and tissue perfusion.
Q3: Which of the following lists orders opioid analgesics from least potent to most potent
based on their relative efficacy compared to morphine?
A. Codeine, Hydrocodone, Oxycodone, Hydromorphone [CORRECT]
B. Fentanyl, Oxycodone, Morphine, Codeine
C. Hydromorphone, Methadone, Morphine, Codeine
D. Tramadol, Morphine, Fentanyl, Codeine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct because the relative potency ranking progresses from Codeine
(approximately 0.1x the potency of morphine) to Hydrocodone (equivalent to morphine), to
Oxycodone (1.5–2x morphine), and finally Hydromorphone (5–7x morphine). Understanding
this hierarchy is critical for safe dosing conversions and avoiding respiratory depression.
Q4: A patient taking a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker reports swelling in their
ankles and feet that worsens throughout the day. Which medication is the most likely cause
of this side effect?
A. Verapamil
B. Diltiazem
C. Amlodipine [CORRECT]
D. Lisinopril
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because amlodipine is a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker that acts
primarily on vascular smooth muscle, causing precapillary vasodilation which can lead to
peripheral edema. Unlike non-dihydropyridines (verapamil, diltiazem), amlodipine has
minimal effects on cardiac contractility, making the edema a distinct class-related adverse
effect.
, Q5: A nurse is providing education to a patient prescribed fluticasone propionate (Flonase).
Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching regarding the
administration of this dosage form?
A. "I will shake the bottle gently before using it."
B. "I should aim the s pray slightly away from the center of my nos e to avoid irritation."
[CORRECT]
C. "I will blow my nose gently before using the spray."
D. "I need to prime the pump before I use it for the first time."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because the patient should aim the spray toward the ear, not the center of
the septum, to minimize irritation and the risk of nasal septum perforation. Proper
administration technique for intranasal corticosteroids ensures maximum drug delivery to the
nasal mucosa while preventing local tissue damage.
Q6: A 55-year-old African American patient with uncomplicated hypertension requires initial
monotherapy. Based on clinical guidelines, which antihypertensive class is statistically more
likely to be effective as a first-line agent for this demographic compared to an ACE inhibitor?
A. Calcium Channel Blockers (CCBs ) or Thiazide Diuretics [CORRECT]
B. Alpha-1 blockers
C. Beta-blockers
D. Direct vasodilators
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct because African American patients typically have a low renin profile and
respond better to calcium channel blockers or thiazide diuretics than to ACE inhibitors or
ARBs as monotherapy. Individualizing therapy based on demographics and renin status
improves blood pressure control outcomes.
| Latest Update |Newly Released
Pharmacology | Questions & Answers | Grade A
Guaranteed Pass | 100% Correct - Portage Learning
Q1: A patient with hypertension and diabetes is starting antihypertensive therapy. The
physician prescribes a medication that specifically inhibits the conversion of angiotensin I to
angiotensin II. Which medication class is being prescribed?
A. Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers (ARBs)
B. Calcium Channel Blockers (CCBs)
C. Angiotens in -Converting Enzyme (ACE) Inhibitors [CORRECT]
D. Beta-blockers
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because ACE inhibitors (e.g., lisinopril, enalapril) specifically block the
angiotensin-converting enzyme, preventing the formation of Angiotensin II, a potent
vasoconstrictor. This mechanism leads to vasodilation and decreased aldosterone secretion,
making it a first-line choice for patients with diabetes to provide renal protection.
Q2: A patient is brought to the emergency department with severe hypertension. The nurse
calculates the patient's cardiac output using the formula CO = HR × SV. If the patient's heart
rate is 90 beats per minute and the stroke volume is 75 mL, what is the cardiac output in liters
per minute?
A. 6.0 L/min
B. 6.75 L/min [CORRECT]
C. 7.5 L/min
D. 5.25 L/min
,Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because cardiac output is calculated by multiplying the heart rate (90 bpm)
by the stroke volume (75 mL), resulting in 6,750 mL/min, which converts to 6.75 L/min. This
calculation is essential for assessing hemodynamic status and tissue perfusion.
Q3: Which of the following lists orders opioid analgesics from least potent to most potent
based on their relative efficacy compared to morphine?
A. Codeine, Hydrocodone, Oxycodone, Hydromorphone [CORRECT]
B. Fentanyl, Oxycodone, Morphine, Codeine
C. Hydromorphone, Methadone, Morphine, Codeine
D. Tramadol, Morphine, Fentanyl, Codeine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct because the relative potency ranking progresses from Codeine
(approximately 0.1x the potency of morphine) to Hydrocodone (equivalent to morphine), to
Oxycodone (1.5–2x morphine), and finally Hydromorphone (5–7x morphine). Understanding
this hierarchy is critical for safe dosing conversions and avoiding respiratory depression.
Q4: A patient taking a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker reports swelling in their
ankles and feet that worsens throughout the day. Which medication is the most likely cause
of this side effect?
A. Verapamil
B. Diltiazem
C. Amlodipine [CORRECT]
D. Lisinopril
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because amlodipine is a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker that acts
primarily on vascular smooth muscle, causing precapillary vasodilation which can lead to
peripheral edema. Unlike non-dihydropyridines (verapamil, diltiazem), amlodipine has
minimal effects on cardiac contractility, making the edema a distinct class-related adverse
effect.
, Q5: A nurse is providing education to a patient prescribed fluticasone propionate (Flonase).
Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching regarding the
administration of this dosage form?
A. "I will shake the bottle gently before using it."
B. "I should aim the s pray slightly away from the center of my nos e to avoid irritation."
[CORRECT]
C. "I will blow my nose gently before using the spray."
D. "I need to prime the pump before I use it for the first time."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because the patient should aim the spray toward the ear, not the center of
the septum, to minimize irritation and the risk of nasal septum perforation. Proper
administration technique for intranasal corticosteroids ensures maximum drug delivery to the
nasal mucosa while preventing local tissue damage.
Q6: A 55-year-old African American patient with uncomplicated hypertension requires initial
monotherapy. Based on clinical guidelines, which antihypertensive class is statistically more
likely to be effective as a first-line agent for this demographic compared to an ACE inhibitor?
A. Calcium Channel Blockers (CCBs ) or Thiazide Diuretics [CORRECT]
B. Alpha-1 blockers
C. Beta-blockers
D. Direct vasodilators
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct because African American patients typically have a low renin profile and
respond better to calcium channel blockers or thiazide diuretics than to ACE inhibitors or
ARBs as monotherapy. Individualizing therapy based on demographics and renin status
improves blood pressure control outcomes.
