TACTICAL EMERGENCY CASUALTY CARE
(TECC) EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES ||
100% GUARANTEED PASS!!
<LATEST VERSION>
1
During an active shooter incident, a responder reaches a casualty actively bleeding
from a femoral wound while gunfire is still ongoing nearby. What is the most
appropriate immediate action?
A. Apply pressure dressing and continue assessment
B. Perform airway repositioning
C. Apply a tourniquet high on the limb and move to cover
D. Initiate IV access
Answer: C
Rationale: In the Direct Threat phase, care is limited to life-saving hemorrhage
control and rapid evacuation. Tourniquet application takes priority over all other
interventions.
,2
A casualty in the warm zone has a junctional groin wound with severe bleeding. A
tourniquet cannot be applied. What is the best intervention?
A. Direct pressure only
B. Hemostatic gauze with wound packing and pressure
C. Needle decompression
D. Oxygen administration
Answer: B
Rationale: Junctional bleeding requires wound packing with hemostatic agents
and sustained pressure.
3
A patient is unconscious after blast exposure. You note snoring respirations and no
obvious airway obstruction. What is the first airway intervention in TECC?
A. Endotracheal intubation
B. Nasopharyngeal airway insertion
C. Jaw thrust and airway repositioning
D. Cricothyrotomy immediately
Answer: C
Rationale: Basic airway maneuvers are first-line in TECC before advanced airway
procedures.
4
A casualty in the warm zone has worsening dyspnea, tracheal deviation, and absent
breath sounds on the right side. What is the next step?
A. High-flow oxygen
B. Needle decompression
C. Chest X-ray
D. Positive pressure ventilation only
,Answer: B
Rationale: Signs indicate tension pneumothorax requiring immediate
decompression.
5
Which action best prevents preventable death in the prehospital tactical
environment?
A. Early IV fluids
B. Rapid hemorrhage control
C. Early spinal immobilization
D. Frequent blood pressure checks
Answer: B
Rationale: Uncontrolled hemorrhage is the leading preventable cause of death.
6
A casualty has an amputated arm with minimal bleeding after tourniquet
placement. What should be done next?
A. Remove tourniquet after bleeding stops
B. Convert to pressure dressing immediately
C. Mark time of tourniquet application
D. Start IV antibiotics
Answer: C
Rationale: Tourniquet time must be documented for ongoing care and surgical
planning.
, 7
During evacuation, a casualty becomes pale, tachycardic, and confused despite
bleeding control. What is the most likely cause?
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Shock from blood loss
C. Stroke
D. Anxiety reaction
Answer: B
Rationale: Signs indicate hemorrhagic shock progression.
8
A casualty is trapped in the hot zone. What is the responder’s priority?
A. Establish IV access
B. Suppress threat and extract casualty
C. Start full head-to-toe assessment
D. Apply oxygen mask
Answer: B
Rationale: In Direct Threat, tactical suppression and evacuation take priority over
medical care.
9
Which airway adjunct is most appropriate for a semi-conscious casualty without
gag reflex?
A. Oropharyngeal airway
B. Nasopharyngeal airway
C. Endotracheal tube
D. Laryngeal mask airway only
Answer: A
Rationale: OPA is appropriate when gag reflex is absent.
(TECC) EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES ||
100% GUARANTEED PASS!!
<LATEST VERSION>
1
During an active shooter incident, a responder reaches a casualty actively bleeding
from a femoral wound while gunfire is still ongoing nearby. What is the most
appropriate immediate action?
A. Apply pressure dressing and continue assessment
B. Perform airway repositioning
C. Apply a tourniquet high on the limb and move to cover
D. Initiate IV access
Answer: C
Rationale: In the Direct Threat phase, care is limited to life-saving hemorrhage
control and rapid evacuation. Tourniquet application takes priority over all other
interventions.
,2
A casualty in the warm zone has a junctional groin wound with severe bleeding. A
tourniquet cannot be applied. What is the best intervention?
A. Direct pressure only
B. Hemostatic gauze with wound packing and pressure
C. Needle decompression
D. Oxygen administration
Answer: B
Rationale: Junctional bleeding requires wound packing with hemostatic agents
and sustained pressure.
3
A patient is unconscious after blast exposure. You note snoring respirations and no
obvious airway obstruction. What is the first airway intervention in TECC?
A. Endotracheal intubation
B. Nasopharyngeal airway insertion
C. Jaw thrust and airway repositioning
D. Cricothyrotomy immediately
Answer: C
Rationale: Basic airway maneuvers are first-line in TECC before advanced airway
procedures.
4
A casualty in the warm zone has worsening dyspnea, tracheal deviation, and absent
breath sounds on the right side. What is the next step?
A. High-flow oxygen
B. Needle decompression
C. Chest X-ray
D. Positive pressure ventilation only
,Answer: B
Rationale: Signs indicate tension pneumothorax requiring immediate
decompression.
5
Which action best prevents preventable death in the prehospital tactical
environment?
A. Early IV fluids
B. Rapid hemorrhage control
C. Early spinal immobilization
D. Frequent blood pressure checks
Answer: B
Rationale: Uncontrolled hemorrhage is the leading preventable cause of death.
6
A casualty has an amputated arm with minimal bleeding after tourniquet
placement. What should be done next?
A. Remove tourniquet after bleeding stops
B. Convert to pressure dressing immediately
C. Mark time of tourniquet application
D. Start IV antibiotics
Answer: C
Rationale: Tourniquet time must be documented for ongoing care and surgical
planning.
, 7
During evacuation, a casualty becomes pale, tachycardic, and confused despite
bleeding control. What is the most likely cause?
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Shock from blood loss
C. Stroke
D. Anxiety reaction
Answer: B
Rationale: Signs indicate hemorrhagic shock progression.
8
A casualty is trapped in the hot zone. What is the responder’s priority?
A. Establish IV access
B. Suppress threat and extract casualty
C. Start full head-to-toe assessment
D. Apply oxygen mask
Answer: B
Rationale: In Direct Threat, tactical suppression and evacuation take priority over
medical care.
9
Which airway adjunct is most appropriate for a semi-conscious casualty without
gag reflex?
A. Oropharyngeal airway
B. Nasopharyngeal airway
C. Endotracheal tube
D. Laryngeal mask airway only
Answer: A
Rationale: OPA is appropriate when gag reflex is absent.
