TEEX HAZMAT TECHNICIAN EXAM AND PRACTICE
EXAM NEWEST 2026 TEST BANK — 180 Questions
Section 1: Hazardous Materials Regulations and Standards (Questions 1-20)
1 During a hazardous materials incident, a technician observes that the shipping papers indicate the material is a
Division 6.1 toxic substance, Packing Group I, with a primary hazard of toxicity. However, the technician also
notes that the material meets the criteria for a Class 8 corrosive material. Under 49 CFR §173.2a, which of the
following correctly describes how the material must be classified and what placard must be displayed?
A) Classify as Division 6.1 with a subsidiary Class 8 hazard; display the TOXIC placard.
B) Classify as Class 8 with a subsidiary Division 6.1 hazard; display the CORROSIVE placard.
C) Classify as Division 6.1 only, because toxicity takes precedence; display the TOXIC placard.
D) Classify as Class 8 only, because corrosivity is considered more hazardous; display the CORROSIVE placard.
Answer: A
Rationale: Under 49 CFR §173.2a, when a material meets the definitions of more than one hazard class, the primary
hazard is determined by the precedence of hazards table. Division 6.1 (toxic) takes precedence over Class 8
(corrosive) for Packing Group I. Therefore, the material is classified as Division 6.1 with a subsidiary Class 8
hazard, and the TOXIC placard is required.
2 A facility stores a mixture containing 15% by weight of a flammable liquid (flash point 38°C) and 85% by
weight of a non-hazardous solid. According to 29 CFR 1910.1200 (Hazard Communication) and 49 CFR, which
of the following statements correctly describes the regulatory requirements for shipping this mixture?
A) The mixture is not regulated by 49 CFR because the flammable component is below 20% by weight.
B) The mixture is classified as a Class 3 flammable liquid and must be shipped with a FLAMMABLE placard.
C) The mixture is not subject to 49 CFR because it is a solid mixture, even though it contains a flammable liquid.
D) The mixture is regulated under 49 CFR only if the flammable liquid is a hazardous substance as defined by
EPA.
Answer: B
Rationale: Under 49 CFR, a mixture containing a hazardous material is subject to regulation if the mixture meets the
definition of a hazard class. A flammable liquid with a flash point below 60°C is Class 3. The percentage of the
flammable component does not exempt it from classification; the mixture as a whole must be tested or classified
based on its properties. Since the flash point of the mixture is likely below 60°C (the flammable liquid dominates),
it is a Class 3 flammable liquid and requires a FLAMMABLE placard.
3 A technician is reviewing the safety data sheet (SDS) for a chemical that is listed as a carcinogen by the
National Toxicology Program (NTP) and also has an oral LD50 of 50 mg/kg in rats. Under OSHA's Hazard
Communication Standard (29 CFR 1910.1200), which of the following hazard classifications applies?
A) The chemical is classified as a Category 1 carcinogen and Category 3 acute toxicant.
B) The chemical is classified as a Category 1B carcinogen and Category 2 acute toxicant.
C) The chemical is classified as a Category 2 carcinogen and Category 4 acute toxicant.
D) The chemical is classified as a Category 1A carcinogen and Category 3 acute toxicant.
Answer: D
Rationale: Under the HCS, NTP listed carcinogens are classified as Category 1A (known human carcinogen). For
acute oral toxicity, an LD50 of 50 mg/kg falls within Category 3 (50 < LD50 "d 300 mg/kg). Thus, the correct
classification is Category 1A carcinogen and Category 3 acute toxicant.
,4 An incident commander at a hazardous materials scene decides to implement defensive actions only, based on
the initial assessment. The technician notes that the material involved is a toxic inhalation hazard (TIH) listed in
49 CFR §172.101. According to OSHA 29 CFR 1910.120(q) and NFPA 1072, which of the following is the
minimum level of training required for personnel entering the hot zone to perform monitoring?
A) Awareness level
B) Operations level
C) Technician level
D) Incident commander level
Answer: C
Rationale: For TIH materials, the risk of exposure is high, and only personnel trained to the technician level (or
higher) are permitted to enter the hot zone for monitoring or mitigation, as per NFPA 1072 and OSHA 1910.120.
Operations level personnel are limited to defensive actions from a safe distance and cannot enter the hot zone.
5 A shipping container bears the following markings: UN1234, PG II, and a marine pollutant mark. According to
49 CFR, which of the following statements is correct regarding the transportation requirements?
A) The material is a hazardous substance because it is a marine pollutant; a hazardous substance designation is
required.
B) The material must be shipped as a hazardous waste because it is a marine pollutant.
C) The marine pollutant mark is optional if the material is already labeled with a hazard class label.
D) The material is not subject to 49 CFR because the UN number indicates it is a dangerous good but the PG II
suggests low hazard.
Answer: A
Rationale: Under 49 CFR §172.322, a material that is a marine pollutant must be marked with the marine pollutant
mark, and it is considered a hazardous substance if it meets the definition in §171.8. The presence of a UN number
and PG II indicates it is regulated, and the marine pollutant mark is mandatory. Option A correctly states that a
hazardous substance designation is required.
6 A technician is tasked with determining the compatibility of two hazardous wastes before mixing them in a
storage tank. The wastes are classified as D002 (corrosive) and D001 (ignitable). Under 40 CFR Part 264
Subpart I, which of the following is the primary regulatory requirement that must be satisfied before mixing?
A) The mixture must be tested to ensure it does not exhibit a new hazardous characteristic.
B) The mixture is prohibited unless a permit modification is obtained from the EPA.
C) The mixture is allowed if both wastes are from the same generator and the tank is properly labeled.
D) The mixture is allowed only if the corrosive waste has a pH between 2 and 12.5.
Answer: A
Rationale: Under 40 CFR §264.17(b), ignitable or reactive waste must not be placed in a container or tank unless the
waste is treated, rendered non-ignitable or non-reactive, or handled in a way that prevents accidents. Mixing
incompatible wastes could cause a violent reaction. Therefore, the mixture must be tested to ensure it does not
exhibit a new hazardous characteristic (e.g., ignitability, corrosivity, reactivity) or cause a dangerous reaction.
7 During an inspection, a compliance officer finds that a facility has not updated its contingency plan as required
by 40 CFR Part 264. The facility handles hazardous waste and has experienced a change in the types of waste
stored. Which of the following is the most appropriate regulatory citation for this violation?
A) 40 CFR §264.55 – Contingency plan requirements for facilities with hazardous waste.
B) 40 CFR §264.56 – Emergency procedures and equipment.
C) 40 CFR §264.57 – Arrangements with local authorities.
D) 40 CFR §264.58 – Personnel training.
,Answer: A
Rationale: 40 CFR §264.55 requires that the contingency plan be reviewed and immediately amended if there is a
change in the facility's operations that affects the plan, such as a change in the types of hazardous waste handled.
The other options address related but distinct requirements: emergency procedures (§264.56), local arrangements
(§264.57), and training (§264.58).
8 A hazmat technician is evaluating a railcar that is leaking a material classified as a hazardous substance under
CERCLA. The technician notices that the railcar displays a placard with the UN identification number 1830 and
a CORROSIVE label. The technician also finds that the shipping papers indicate the material is sulfuric acid,
which is listed as a hazardous substance with a reportable quantity (RQ) of 1,000 lbs. If the leak is estimated at
500 lbs, which of the following actions is required under 49 CFR Part 171?
A) Immediate notification to the National Response Center (NRC) is required because the material is a hazardous
substance.
B) Immediate notification to the NRC is not required because the quantity released is below the RQ.
C) Notification to the NRC is required only if the leak poses an immediate threat to human health.
D) Notification to the NRC is required only if the railcar is carrying a poison inhalation hazard.
Answer: B
Rationale: Under 49 CFR §171.15, immediate telephone notice to the NRC is required when there is a release of a
hazardous substance in a quantity equal to or greater than the RQ. Since the RQ for sulfuric acid is 1,000 lbs and
the leak is 500 lbs, the release is below the RQ, so immediate notification is not required. However, other reporting
requirements may apply under state or local regulations.
9 A facility stores ammonium nitrate (UN1942) in bulk. According to 49 CFR §172.504, which of the following
placarding requirements applies?
A) The facility must display the OXIDIZER placard on all sides of the storage area.
B) The facility must display the EXPLOSIVES 1.1 placard because ammonium nitrate can explode under certain
conditions.
C) The facility is not required to placard because ammonium nitrate is not a hazardous material when stored in
bulk.
D) The facility must display the CLASS 5.1 placard only if the ammonium nitrate is mixed with fuel oil.
Answer: A
Rationale: Ammonium nitrate (UN1942) is classified as a Division 5.1 (oxidizer) under 49 CFR. When stored in
bulk, it must be placarded with the OXIDIZER placard (5.1). Option A is correct. Option B is incorrect because
ammonium nitrate is not classified as an explosive unless it meets specific criteria (e.g., ANFO). Option C is false;
it is a hazardous material. Option D is incorrect because the placard requirement is independent of mixing.
10 A technician is reviewing the training records for a hazmat team. According to OSHA 29 CFR 1910.120(e),
which of the following is the minimum annual refresher training requirement for a hazardous waste site
worker?
A) 8 hours of refresher training covering relevant topics.
B) 24 hours of refresher training every two years.
C) 40 hours of initial training plus 8 hours of refresher annually.
D) No refresher training is required if the worker has completed 40 hours of initial training.
Answer: A
Rationale: Under 29 CFR 1910.120(e)(8), workers who have completed the required initial training must receive at
least 8 hours of annual refresher training to maintain their competency. Option A is correct. Option B refers to the
initial training requirement for occasional site workers. Option C specifies initial training, not refresher. Option D
, is false; refresher training is mandatory.
11 A facility stores a mixture of organic peroxides and flammable liquids. The local fire code requires compliance
with both OSHA 29 CFR 1910.119 and EPA 40 CFR Part 68. During a process hazard analysis, it is noted that
the quantity of organic peroxides exceeds the threshold for OSHA's PSM but not for EPA's RMP. Which of the
following best describes the regulatory implications?
A) Only OSHA PSM applies; EPA RMP is not triggered because the threshold is not met.
B) Both OSHA PSM and EPA RMP apply because the flammable liquids also contribute to the total inventory.
C) Neither regulation applies because organic peroxides are exempt from both under the 'retail exemption'.
D) OSHA PSM applies, but EPA RMP does not; however, the facility must still comply with the general duty
clause under CAA.
Answer: D
Rationale: OSHA PSM applies when the threshold quantity for a listed substance is exceeded. EPA RMP has higher
thresholds for some substances. The general duty clause under the Clean Air Act requires facilities to prevent
accidental releases regardless of threshold status. Option A ignores the general duty clause. Option B is incorrect
because thresholds are substance-specific, not aggregated. Option C is false since organic peroxides are not
generally exempt.
12 A hazmat technician is reviewing the marking requirements for a shipment of UN1950 (aerosols) and UN1203
(gasoline). The transport document indicates the material is being shipped by rail. Which of the following
combinations of placards and labels is correct according to 49 CFR?
A) FLAMMABLE placard for the gasoline and NON-FLAMMABLE GAS placard for the aerosols.
B) CONSUMER COMMODITY label for aerosols and FLAMMABLE placard for gasoline on the railcar.
C) A single FLAMMABLE placard on the railcar because gasoline is the predominant hazard.
D) FLAMMABLE placard for gasoline and FLAMMABLE GAS placard for aerosols, displayed on opposite
ends of the railcar.
Answer: C
Rationale: 49 CFR allows use of a single placard displaying the primary hazard of the most hazardous material
when multiple hazardous materials are loaded in the same railcar. Gasoline (Class 3) is the predominant hazard.
Aerosols may be flammable gas but are subsidiary. Option A is incorrect because aerosols are flammable gas, not
non-flammable. Option B is wrong because consumer commodity label is not appropriate for these materials.
Option D is incorrect because only one placard is required.
13 A hazmat team responds to a railcar leaking a material identified as UN2811 (toxic solid, organic, n.o.s.). The
shipping paper indicates the packing group is II. According to 49 CFR, what is the minimum required placard
for this material?
A) POISON INHALATION HAZARD placard.
B) TOXIC placard.
C) CLASS 6 placard with the division 6.1 label.
D) DANGEROUS placard.
Answer: B
Rationale: UN2811 is a toxic solid, class 6.1, packing group II. The required placard is TOXIC (division 6.1).
POISON INHALATION HAZARD is only for materials that also meet the criteria for inhalation toxicity. CLASS 6
placard is not a standard placard; placards show the hazard class name. DANGEROUS placard is used only for
certain mixed loads or when the material is dangerous but not specifically listed.
EXAM NEWEST 2026 TEST BANK — 180 Questions
Section 1: Hazardous Materials Regulations and Standards (Questions 1-20)
1 During a hazardous materials incident, a technician observes that the shipping papers indicate the material is a
Division 6.1 toxic substance, Packing Group I, with a primary hazard of toxicity. However, the technician also
notes that the material meets the criteria for a Class 8 corrosive material. Under 49 CFR §173.2a, which of the
following correctly describes how the material must be classified and what placard must be displayed?
A) Classify as Division 6.1 with a subsidiary Class 8 hazard; display the TOXIC placard.
B) Classify as Class 8 with a subsidiary Division 6.1 hazard; display the CORROSIVE placard.
C) Classify as Division 6.1 only, because toxicity takes precedence; display the TOXIC placard.
D) Classify as Class 8 only, because corrosivity is considered more hazardous; display the CORROSIVE placard.
Answer: A
Rationale: Under 49 CFR §173.2a, when a material meets the definitions of more than one hazard class, the primary
hazard is determined by the precedence of hazards table. Division 6.1 (toxic) takes precedence over Class 8
(corrosive) for Packing Group I. Therefore, the material is classified as Division 6.1 with a subsidiary Class 8
hazard, and the TOXIC placard is required.
2 A facility stores a mixture containing 15% by weight of a flammable liquid (flash point 38°C) and 85% by
weight of a non-hazardous solid. According to 29 CFR 1910.1200 (Hazard Communication) and 49 CFR, which
of the following statements correctly describes the regulatory requirements for shipping this mixture?
A) The mixture is not regulated by 49 CFR because the flammable component is below 20% by weight.
B) The mixture is classified as a Class 3 flammable liquid and must be shipped with a FLAMMABLE placard.
C) The mixture is not subject to 49 CFR because it is a solid mixture, even though it contains a flammable liquid.
D) The mixture is regulated under 49 CFR only if the flammable liquid is a hazardous substance as defined by
EPA.
Answer: B
Rationale: Under 49 CFR, a mixture containing a hazardous material is subject to regulation if the mixture meets the
definition of a hazard class. A flammable liquid with a flash point below 60°C is Class 3. The percentage of the
flammable component does not exempt it from classification; the mixture as a whole must be tested or classified
based on its properties. Since the flash point of the mixture is likely below 60°C (the flammable liquid dominates),
it is a Class 3 flammable liquid and requires a FLAMMABLE placard.
3 A technician is reviewing the safety data sheet (SDS) for a chemical that is listed as a carcinogen by the
National Toxicology Program (NTP) and also has an oral LD50 of 50 mg/kg in rats. Under OSHA's Hazard
Communication Standard (29 CFR 1910.1200), which of the following hazard classifications applies?
A) The chemical is classified as a Category 1 carcinogen and Category 3 acute toxicant.
B) The chemical is classified as a Category 1B carcinogen and Category 2 acute toxicant.
C) The chemical is classified as a Category 2 carcinogen and Category 4 acute toxicant.
D) The chemical is classified as a Category 1A carcinogen and Category 3 acute toxicant.
Answer: D
Rationale: Under the HCS, NTP listed carcinogens are classified as Category 1A (known human carcinogen). For
acute oral toxicity, an LD50 of 50 mg/kg falls within Category 3 (50 < LD50 "d 300 mg/kg). Thus, the correct
classification is Category 1A carcinogen and Category 3 acute toxicant.
,4 An incident commander at a hazardous materials scene decides to implement defensive actions only, based on
the initial assessment. The technician notes that the material involved is a toxic inhalation hazard (TIH) listed in
49 CFR §172.101. According to OSHA 29 CFR 1910.120(q) and NFPA 1072, which of the following is the
minimum level of training required for personnel entering the hot zone to perform monitoring?
A) Awareness level
B) Operations level
C) Technician level
D) Incident commander level
Answer: C
Rationale: For TIH materials, the risk of exposure is high, and only personnel trained to the technician level (or
higher) are permitted to enter the hot zone for monitoring or mitigation, as per NFPA 1072 and OSHA 1910.120.
Operations level personnel are limited to defensive actions from a safe distance and cannot enter the hot zone.
5 A shipping container bears the following markings: UN1234, PG II, and a marine pollutant mark. According to
49 CFR, which of the following statements is correct regarding the transportation requirements?
A) The material is a hazardous substance because it is a marine pollutant; a hazardous substance designation is
required.
B) The material must be shipped as a hazardous waste because it is a marine pollutant.
C) The marine pollutant mark is optional if the material is already labeled with a hazard class label.
D) The material is not subject to 49 CFR because the UN number indicates it is a dangerous good but the PG II
suggests low hazard.
Answer: A
Rationale: Under 49 CFR §172.322, a material that is a marine pollutant must be marked with the marine pollutant
mark, and it is considered a hazardous substance if it meets the definition in §171.8. The presence of a UN number
and PG II indicates it is regulated, and the marine pollutant mark is mandatory. Option A correctly states that a
hazardous substance designation is required.
6 A technician is tasked with determining the compatibility of two hazardous wastes before mixing them in a
storage tank. The wastes are classified as D002 (corrosive) and D001 (ignitable). Under 40 CFR Part 264
Subpart I, which of the following is the primary regulatory requirement that must be satisfied before mixing?
A) The mixture must be tested to ensure it does not exhibit a new hazardous characteristic.
B) The mixture is prohibited unless a permit modification is obtained from the EPA.
C) The mixture is allowed if both wastes are from the same generator and the tank is properly labeled.
D) The mixture is allowed only if the corrosive waste has a pH between 2 and 12.5.
Answer: A
Rationale: Under 40 CFR §264.17(b), ignitable or reactive waste must not be placed in a container or tank unless the
waste is treated, rendered non-ignitable or non-reactive, or handled in a way that prevents accidents. Mixing
incompatible wastes could cause a violent reaction. Therefore, the mixture must be tested to ensure it does not
exhibit a new hazardous characteristic (e.g., ignitability, corrosivity, reactivity) or cause a dangerous reaction.
7 During an inspection, a compliance officer finds that a facility has not updated its contingency plan as required
by 40 CFR Part 264. The facility handles hazardous waste and has experienced a change in the types of waste
stored. Which of the following is the most appropriate regulatory citation for this violation?
A) 40 CFR §264.55 – Contingency plan requirements for facilities with hazardous waste.
B) 40 CFR §264.56 – Emergency procedures and equipment.
C) 40 CFR §264.57 – Arrangements with local authorities.
D) 40 CFR §264.58 – Personnel training.
,Answer: A
Rationale: 40 CFR §264.55 requires that the contingency plan be reviewed and immediately amended if there is a
change in the facility's operations that affects the plan, such as a change in the types of hazardous waste handled.
The other options address related but distinct requirements: emergency procedures (§264.56), local arrangements
(§264.57), and training (§264.58).
8 A hazmat technician is evaluating a railcar that is leaking a material classified as a hazardous substance under
CERCLA. The technician notices that the railcar displays a placard with the UN identification number 1830 and
a CORROSIVE label. The technician also finds that the shipping papers indicate the material is sulfuric acid,
which is listed as a hazardous substance with a reportable quantity (RQ) of 1,000 lbs. If the leak is estimated at
500 lbs, which of the following actions is required under 49 CFR Part 171?
A) Immediate notification to the National Response Center (NRC) is required because the material is a hazardous
substance.
B) Immediate notification to the NRC is not required because the quantity released is below the RQ.
C) Notification to the NRC is required only if the leak poses an immediate threat to human health.
D) Notification to the NRC is required only if the railcar is carrying a poison inhalation hazard.
Answer: B
Rationale: Under 49 CFR §171.15, immediate telephone notice to the NRC is required when there is a release of a
hazardous substance in a quantity equal to or greater than the RQ. Since the RQ for sulfuric acid is 1,000 lbs and
the leak is 500 lbs, the release is below the RQ, so immediate notification is not required. However, other reporting
requirements may apply under state or local regulations.
9 A facility stores ammonium nitrate (UN1942) in bulk. According to 49 CFR §172.504, which of the following
placarding requirements applies?
A) The facility must display the OXIDIZER placard on all sides of the storage area.
B) The facility must display the EXPLOSIVES 1.1 placard because ammonium nitrate can explode under certain
conditions.
C) The facility is not required to placard because ammonium nitrate is not a hazardous material when stored in
bulk.
D) The facility must display the CLASS 5.1 placard only if the ammonium nitrate is mixed with fuel oil.
Answer: A
Rationale: Ammonium nitrate (UN1942) is classified as a Division 5.1 (oxidizer) under 49 CFR. When stored in
bulk, it must be placarded with the OXIDIZER placard (5.1). Option A is correct. Option B is incorrect because
ammonium nitrate is not classified as an explosive unless it meets specific criteria (e.g., ANFO). Option C is false;
it is a hazardous material. Option D is incorrect because the placard requirement is independent of mixing.
10 A technician is reviewing the training records for a hazmat team. According to OSHA 29 CFR 1910.120(e),
which of the following is the minimum annual refresher training requirement for a hazardous waste site
worker?
A) 8 hours of refresher training covering relevant topics.
B) 24 hours of refresher training every two years.
C) 40 hours of initial training plus 8 hours of refresher annually.
D) No refresher training is required if the worker has completed 40 hours of initial training.
Answer: A
Rationale: Under 29 CFR 1910.120(e)(8), workers who have completed the required initial training must receive at
least 8 hours of annual refresher training to maintain their competency. Option A is correct. Option B refers to the
initial training requirement for occasional site workers. Option C specifies initial training, not refresher. Option D
, is false; refresher training is mandatory.
11 A facility stores a mixture of organic peroxides and flammable liquids. The local fire code requires compliance
with both OSHA 29 CFR 1910.119 and EPA 40 CFR Part 68. During a process hazard analysis, it is noted that
the quantity of organic peroxides exceeds the threshold for OSHA's PSM but not for EPA's RMP. Which of the
following best describes the regulatory implications?
A) Only OSHA PSM applies; EPA RMP is not triggered because the threshold is not met.
B) Both OSHA PSM and EPA RMP apply because the flammable liquids also contribute to the total inventory.
C) Neither regulation applies because organic peroxides are exempt from both under the 'retail exemption'.
D) OSHA PSM applies, but EPA RMP does not; however, the facility must still comply with the general duty
clause under CAA.
Answer: D
Rationale: OSHA PSM applies when the threshold quantity for a listed substance is exceeded. EPA RMP has higher
thresholds for some substances. The general duty clause under the Clean Air Act requires facilities to prevent
accidental releases regardless of threshold status. Option A ignores the general duty clause. Option B is incorrect
because thresholds are substance-specific, not aggregated. Option C is false since organic peroxides are not
generally exempt.
12 A hazmat technician is reviewing the marking requirements for a shipment of UN1950 (aerosols) and UN1203
(gasoline). The transport document indicates the material is being shipped by rail. Which of the following
combinations of placards and labels is correct according to 49 CFR?
A) FLAMMABLE placard for the gasoline and NON-FLAMMABLE GAS placard for the aerosols.
B) CONSUMER COMMODITY label for aerosols and FLAMMABLE placard for gasoline on the railcar.
C) A single FLAMMABLE placard on the railcar because gasoline is the predominant hazard.
D) FLAMMABLE placard for gasoline and FLAMMABLE GAS placard for aerosols, displayed on opposite
ends of the railcar.
Answer: C
Rationale: 49 CFR allows use of a single placard displaying the primary hazard of the most hazardous material
when multiple hazardous materials are loaded in the same railcar. Gasoline (Class 3) is the predominant hazard.
Aerosols may be flammable gas but are subsidiary. Option A is incorrect because aerosols are flammable gas, not
non-flammable. Option B is wrong because consumer commodity label is not appropriate for these materials.
Option D is incorrect because only one placard is required.
13 A hazmat team responds to a railcar leaking a material identified as UN2811 (toxic solid, organic, n.o.s.). The
shipping paper indicates the packing group is II. According to 49 CFR, what is the minimum required placard
for this material?
A) POISON INHALATION HAZARD placard.
B) TOXIC placard.
C) CLASS 6 placard with the division 6.1 label.
D) DANGEROUS placard.
Answer: B
Rationale: UN2811 is a toxic solid, class 6.1, packing group II. The required placard is TOXIC (division 6.1).
POISON INHALATION HAZARD is only for materials that also meet the criteria for inhalation toxicity. CLASS 6
placard is not a standard placard; placards show the hazard class name. DANGEROUS placard is used only for
certain mixed loads or when the material is dangerous but not specifically listed.
