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Questions & Verified Answers | Comprehensive Flight
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d Nursing, Critical Care Transport & Air Medical
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Certification Study Guide
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THIS EXAM INCLUDES: d d
199 comprehensive practice questions
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Verified correct answers
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Critical care transport review materials
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Flight nursing and flight paramedic concepts
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Air medical operations fundamentals
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Advanced airway and ventilation management
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Hemodynamic monitoring and shock management
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,Critical Care & Emergency Medicine Test Bank
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1. What is the most reliable method of confirming and monitoring
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correct placement of an endotracheal (ET) tube?
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• A. Auscultation of bilateral breath sounds
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• B. Presence of condensation in the ET tube
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• C. Continuous waveform capnography
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• D. Pulse oximetry reading of 100%
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Answer: C. Continuous waveform capnography
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Rationale: Continuous waveform capnography provides real-time evidence
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of exhaled carbon dioxide, which is the gold standard for confirming ET
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tube placement in the trachea. Auscultation and condensation can be
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misleading, and pulse oximetry confirms oxygenation, not ventilation or
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placement.
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2. Which of the following structures are included in the upper airway?
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• A. Trachea, bronchi, and alveoli
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• B. Nose, mouth, pharynx, and larynx
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• C. Terminal bronchioles and alveoli
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• D. Bronchioles and alveolar ducts
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Answer: B. Nose, mouth, pharynx, and larynx
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Rationale: The upper airway begins at the nose and mouth and includes the
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pharynx and larynx. The lower airway starts from the trachea and includes
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the bronchi and bronchioles.
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3. The area from the nose to the terminal bronchioles where no gas
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exchange occurs is called the:
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• A. Physiological dead space
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• B. Alveolar dead space
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, • C. Anatomical dead space
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• D. Shunt space
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Answer: C. Anatomical dead spaced d d d
Rationale: Anatomical dead space refers to the volume of the conducting
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airways (nose to terminal bronchioles) that does not participate in gas
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exchange. It is approximately 2 mL/kg of inspired tidal volume.
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4. A patient presents with tracheal deviation away from the affected
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side, absent breath sounds, and hyperresonance to percussion on the
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left hemithorax. What is the most likely diagnosis?
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• A. Massive pleural effusion
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• B. Tension pneumothorax
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• C. Atelectasis
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• D. Simple pneumothorax
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Answer: B. Tension pneumothorax d d d
Rationale: The classic findings of a tension pneumothorax include tracheal
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deviation away from the affected side, absent or decreased breath sounds,
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and hyperresonance due to trapped air. This is a life-threatening condition
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requiring immediate needle decompression.
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5. A patient's arterial blood gas (ABG) reveals a PaCO2 of 52 mmHg.
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This is consistent with:
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• A. Metabolic acidosis
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• B. Metabolic alkalosis
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• C. Respiratory acidosis
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• D. Respiratory alkalosis
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Answer: C. Respiratory acidosis d d d
Rationale: The normal range for PaCO2 is 35-45 mmHg. A value greater
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, than 45 mmHg indicates hypoventilation and respiratory acidosis. A value
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less than 35 mmHg indicates hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis.
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6. Pulmonary hypertension is defined as a mean pulmonary artery
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pressure (PAm) greater than:
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• A. 10 mmHg
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• B. 20 mmHg
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• C. 30 mmHg
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• D. 40 mmHg
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Answer: B. 20 mmHg d d d
Rationale: Normal mean pulmonary artery pressure is 10-20 mmHg.
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Pulmonary hypertension is diagnosed when the PAm exceeds 20 mmHg at
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rest.
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7. Which physiological change in pregnancy contributes to a reduced
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functional residual capacity (FRC)?
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• A. Increased plasma volume
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• B. The gravid uterus lifting the diaphragm
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• C. Increased tidal volume
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• D. Decreased oxygen consumption
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Answer: B. The gravid uterus lifting the diaphragm
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Rationale: As the uterus enlarges, it pushes the diaphragm upward,
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reducing lung volumes, including the functional residual capacity (FRC). This
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makes pregnant patients more susceptible to hypoxemia during periods of
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hypoventilation or apnea.
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8. For a pregnant patient at 28 weeks gestation in cardiac arrest, the
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recommended maximum time from arrest to performing a perimortem
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cesarean section is:
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