ATLS POST TEST CERTIFICATION EVALUATION
TESTS 2026 COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS 100 PERCENT CORRECT
◉ A 23 year old male is stabbed below the right nipple. He is alert,
and his oxygen saturation is 98%. Chest tube was placed for
treatment of hemopneumothorax. BP is 90/60 mmHg after
administration of 1 L of crystalloid solution. What is the next step in
treatment?
A. Re-examine the chest
B. Place a left-sided chest tube
C. Insert central venous catheter
D. Perform CT Abd/Pelvis
E. Prepare for urgent thoractomy. Answer: A. Re-examine the chest
◉ You are treating a trauma patient and attempt a definitive airway
by intubation. However, the vocal cords are not visible. What tool
would be most valuable for achieving successful intubation?
A. Gum elastic bougie
B. Lateral cervical spine XR
C. Nasopharyngeal airway
D. Oxygen
E. Laryngeal mask airway. Answer: A. Gum elastic bougie
,When glottis is not visualized, it is passed blindly behind the
epiglottis
◉ A 79 year old female is involved in a motor vehicle crash and
presents to the ED. She is on Coumadin and a beta blocker. Which of
the folowing statements is true concerning her management?
A. The risk of subdural hemorrhage is decreased
B. Absence of tachycardia indicates that the patient is
hemodynamically normal
C. Non-operative management of abdominal injuries is more likely to
be successful in older adults than in younger patients
D. Vigorous fluid resuscitation may be assocaited with
cardiorespiratory failure
E. Epinephrine should be infused immediately for hypotension.
Answer: D. Vigorous fluid resuscitation may be assocaited with
cardiorespiratory failure
◉ The primary indication for transferring a patient to a higher level
trauma center is:. Answer: Resource limitations as determined by
the transferring doctor
-> DO NOT obtain things unless they are necessary at current
hospital!
◉ A teenaged bicycle rider is hit by a truck traveling at high speed.
In the emergency department, she is actively bleeding from open
,fractures of her legs, and has abrasions on her chest and abdominal
wall. Her blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg, heart rate is 140 beats per
minute, respiratory rate is 8 breaths per minute, and GCS score is 6.
The first step in managing this patient is to:
a) obtain a lateral cervical spine xray.
b) administer 2 liters of crystalloid solution.
c) insert a central venous pressure line.
d) perform endotracheal intubation and ventilation.. Answer: D.
Perform endotracheal intubation and ventilation
GCS 8 or less -> intubate
◉ Contraindication to nasogastric intubation is the presence of a:.
Answer: Fracture of the cribiform plate
◉ Which of the following statements regarding patients with
thoracic spine injuries is true?. Answer: Log rolling may be
destabilizing to fractures from T12-L1
◉ A young man sustains a rifle wound to the mid-abdomen. He is
brought promptly to the ED by prehospital personnel. His skin is
cool and diaphoretic, and his systolic blood pressure is 58mmHg.
Warmed crystalloid fluids are initiated without improvement in his
vital signs. The next, most appropriate, step is to perform:
A. a laparotomy
, B. An abdominal CT-scan
C. Diagnostic laparoscopy
D. Abdominal ultrasonography
E. A diagnostic peritoneal lavage. Answer: A. a laparotomy
unstable vitals + wound to mid-abdomen -> laparotomy
◉ Young women sustains a severe head injury as the result of a
motor vehicle crash. In the emergency department her GCS is 6. Her
BP is 140/90 mmHg and her HR is 80. She is intubated and is being
mechanically ventilated. Her pupils are 3 mm in size and equally
reactive to light. There is no other apparent injury. The more
important principle to follow in the early management of her head
injury is to:. Answer: Prevent secondary brain injury
◉ 22 year old man is brought to the hospital after crashing his
motorcycle into a telephone pole. He is unconscious and in profound
shock. He has no open wounds or obvious fractures. The cause of his
shocks is most likely caused by:. Answer: Hemorrhage into the chest
or abdomen
nothing visible -> think chest or abdomen
◉ 30 year old man is struck by a car traveling 35mph. He has
obvious fractures of the left tibia near the knee, pain in the pelvis
area, and severe dyspnea. His HR is 180, RR 48 bpm with no breath
TESTS 2026 COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS 100 PERCENT CORRECT
◉ A 23 year old male is stabbed below the right nipple. He is alert,
and his oxygen saturation is 98%. Chest tube was placed for
treatment of hemopneumothorax. BP is 90/60 mmHg after
administration of 1 L of crystalloid solution. What is the next step in
treatment?
A. Re-examine the chest
B. Place a left-sided chest tube
C. Insert central venous catheter
D. Perform CT Abd/Pelvis
E. Prepare for urgent thoractomy. Answer: A. Re-examine the chest
◉ You are treating a trauma patient and attempt a definitive airway
by intubation. However, the vocal cords are not visible. What tool
would be most valuable for achieving successful intubation?
A. Gum elastic bougie
B. Lateral cervical spine XR
C. Nasopharyngeal airway
D. Oxygen
E. Laryngeal mask airway. Answer: A. Gum elastic bougie
,When glottis is not visualized, it is passed blindly behind the
epiglottis
◉ A 79 year old female is involved in a motor vehicle crash and
presents to the ED. She is on Coumadin and a beta blocker. Which of
the folowing statements is true concerning her management?
A. The risk of subdural hemorrhage is decreased
B. Absence of tachycardia indicates that the patient is
hemodynamically normal
C. Non-operative management of abdominal injuries is more likely to
be successful in older adults than in younger patients
D. Vigorous fluid resuscitation may be assocaited with
cardiorespiratory failure
E. Epinephrine should be infused immediately for hypotension.
Answer: D. Vigorous fluid resuscitation may be assocaited with
cardiorespiratory failure
◉ The primary indication for transferring a patient to a higher level
trauma center is:. Answer: Resource limitations as determined by
the transferring doctor
-> DO NOT obtain things unless they are necessary at current
hospital!
◉ A teenaged bicycle rider is hit by a truck traveling at high speed.
In the emergency department, she is actively bleeding from open
,fractures of her legs, and has abrasions on her chest and abdominal
wall. Her blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg, heart rate is 140 beats per
minute, respiratory rate is 8 breaths per minute, and GCS score is 6.
The first step in managing this patient is to:
a) obtain a lateral cervical spine xray.
b) administer 2 liters of crystalloid solution.
c) insert a central venous pressure line.
d) perform endotracheal intubation and ventilation.. Answer: D.
Perform endotracheal intubation and ventilation
GCS 8 or less -> intubate
◉ Contraindication to nasogastric intubation is the presence of a:.
Answer: Fracture of the cribiform plate
◉ Which of the following statements regarding patients with
thoracic spine injuries is true?. Answer: Log rolling may be
destabilizing to fractures from T12-L1
◉ A young man sustains a rifle wound to the mid-abdomen. He is
brought promptly to the ED by prehospital personnel. His skin is
cool and diaphoretic, and his systolic blood pressure is 58mmHg.
Warmed crystalloid fluids are initiated without improvement in his
vital signs. The next, most appropriate, step is to perform:
A. a laparotomy
, B. An abdominal CT-scan
C. Diagnostic laparoscopy
D. Abdominal ultrasonography
E. A diagnostic peritoneal lavage. Answer: A. a laparotomy
unstable vitals + wound to mid-abdomen -> laparotomy
◉ Young women sustains a severe head injury as the result of a
motor vehicle crash. In the emergency department her GCS is 6. Her
BP is 140/90 mmHg and her HR is 80. She is intubated and is being
mechanically ventilated. Her pupils are 3 mm in size and equally
reactive to light. There is no other apparent injury. The more
important principle to follow in the early management of her head
injury is to:. Answer: Prevent secondary brain injury
◉ 22 year old man is brought to the hospital after crashing his
motorcycle into a telephone pole. He is unconscious and in profound
shock. He has no open wounds or obvious fractures. The cause of his
shocks is most likely caused by:. Answer: Hemorrhage into the chest
or abdomen
nothing visible -> think chest or abdomen
◉ 30 year old man is struck by a car traveling 35mph. He has
obvious fractures of the left tibia near the knee, pain in the pelvis
area, and severe dyspnea. His HR is 180, RR 48 bpm with no breath
