Exam 1: NUR230 / NUR 230 (Latest 2026/2027 Update) Concepts of Nursing: The Childbearing/Child Caring Family | Questions & Answers | 100% Correct | Galen

Exam 1: NUR230 / NUR 230 (Latest 2026/2027 Update) Concepts of Nursing: The Childbearing/Child Caring Family | Questions & Answers | 100% Correct | Galen Q: What is gravida? Answer Total number of pregnancies Q: What is para? Answer Total number of viable pregnancies (at lease 20 weeks gestation) Q: Describe Naegele's Rule? Answer Used to determine the expected date of delivery (EDD) Q: How is the EDD determined? Answer Naegele's Rule: (First day of last period+ 7 days) - 3 months Q: What are the signs of pregnancy? Answer Presumptive, Probable, Positive Q: What is a presumptive sign of pregnancy? Answer N&V, breast changes, fatigue, urinary frequency Q: What is a probable sign of pregnancy? Answer Goodell's sign, Chadwick's sign, Hegar's sign, positive pregnancy test Q: What is a positive sign of pregnancy? Answer Hearing fetal heart tones (12 wks), Visualization of the fetus (4 wks), palpating fetal movement, and visualizing fetal movements: Ultrasound (18 wks) Q: What are the effects of pregnancy on the cardiovascular system? Answer There is extra fluid on board so the CO increases 10%-50%. The heart rate increases 10-15 bpm Q: What is asked/done in first GYN appt? Answer -Pap smear -STD's -Were they on birth control or antibiotics? -Currently taking any medications? -Currently using tobacco, alcohol, or illegal drugs? - Ask about resources (social, financial) -Any previous pregnancies Q: How much should caffeine be decreased to? Answer 1-2 servings a day Q: What foods are rich in iron? Answer -Red meat -Dark leafy greens -Beans -Poultry Q: What are ways in which the mother can avoid heartburn? Answer -Good posture -Avoid spicy foods -Eat small meals Q: At how many weeks can you see the fetus on an ultrasound? Answer 6 weeks Q: What is the "mask of pregnancy" called? Answer Cholasma Q: What is linea nigra? Answer a hyperpigmented line on the abdomen from the symphysis pubis to the top of the fundus Q: What are stretch marks called? Answer Striae gravidarum Q: What are respiratory changes in the mother? Answer -Nasal congestion/ nose bleeding due to elevated estrogen levels -RR increases Q: What are ways to help nausea and vomiting? Answer -Vitamin b6 - Ginger -Eat dry carbs first thing upon rising -Eat small frequent meals -Good posture Q: By what week should nausea and vomiting be gone? Answer Week 14 Q: What is the effect of prolactin on the body? Answer Milk production Q: What is the effect of Estrogen on the body? Purpose is for growth of the fetus Answer -Increase blood flow to the uterus -Softens the cervix -Develops the breast in prep for lactation What is the effect of Progesterone on the body? Answer Smooth muscle relaxer What are things to teach the mother during pregnancy? Answer -No changing of cat litter -May take a tub bath unless they have a ROM -Should not eat raw meats What is lightning? Answer The dropping of the baby into the pelvis, occurs at 36 weeks What is quickening? Answer the initial awareness of mother usually occurs at 16-22 weeks What is HpL? Answer An insulin antagonist. It increases blood glucose in pregnancy What is HcG? Answer It maintains the corpus luteum until the placenta is functional. The hormone used on a pregnancy test. What is a risk for an ectopic pregnancy? Hemorrhage What should the mother do after the removal of a molar pregnancy? She should use protection for one year. Mother can get cancer at the time and it is detrimental to the fetus if she should get pregnant. What is considered a "term" pregnacy? 37-42 weeks What is considered a "preterm" pregnancy? 20- less than 37 weeks What is a viable pregnancy? Ability to live outside of the uterus: 22-24 weeks What is Vena Cava syndrome? Dizziness related to the fetus pressing on the inferior vena cava. Re position the patient on her left side What is gestational diabetes? Insulin needs decrease in the first trimester and increase in the second and third. Baby can be born macrosomic meaning larger than 9 lbs Describe pregnancy induced Hypertension Systolic is 30mg above baseline. Swollen hands and edema What is placenta previa? Abnormal implantation of the placenta in the lower uterus. No pain but bright vaginal bleeding. When does labor begin? With the first uterine contraction. What are the different ways that uterine contractions are assessed? -Frequency -Intensity -Duration -Effacement Examples of true labor -Regular contractions -Pain starts in back and radiates to abdomen -Cervical changes -Interval between contractions gets smaller Examples of false labor -Irregular contractions -Discomfort localized in the abdomen -No change in the cervix In which situations would you not give oxytocin? -Breech position -Placenta previa -Maternal cardiac disease What will be monitored on a patient who was just given an epidural? Monitor for hypotension VEAL/CHOP Variable = Cord compression Early = Head compression Accelerations = Ok Late = Placental insufficiency Can the rubella vaccine be given during pregnancy? No: it is a live vaccine What is it called when the cervix are sewed up due to an incompetent cervix? Cerclage What is the drug of choice for preeclampsia? Mag Sulfate What needs to be monitored when a patient is on Mag sulfate? RR, reflexes, and LOC What are the signs and symptoms of preeclampsia? Elevated BP and proteinuria. May cause decreased profusion to the placenta Latent phase 3cm of dilation. Contractions are about 3-30 minutes apart and last about 30-40 seconds. Active phase 4-7cm of dilation. Contractions are about 2-5min apart and last about 40-60 seconds. Transition phase 8-10cm of dilation. Contractions are about 1.5-2 minutes apart and last about 60-90 seconds. When is "POOF" done? Late decelerations What are the 4 stages of labor? 1. Labor 2. Birth 3. Expulsion of placenta 4. Family/Newborn interaction Diamniotic/Dichorionic Twins will have 2 placentas: A. Always, 2 separate placentas B. Never, 1 fused placenta C. Sometimes, depends on when blastocyte divides C. Sometimes, depends on when blastocyte divides You have two babies, blastocyte divided early (1-3 days) babies can have their own parts but they are identical A client asks about recurrence of herpes. Which statement by the nurse is true? A. Fever and flu-like symptoms precede a recurrent infection. B. Little can be done to control for recurrence. C. Transmission of the virus can only happen when lesions are open and draining. D. Itching and tingling often occur before vesicles appear. D. Itching and tingling often occur before vesicles appear. Which of the following is a common cause of female infertility? A. Sexually transmitted infections B. Smoking C. Contracting mumps after puberty D. Prolonged heat exposure to pelvic area A. Sexually transmitted infections A newborn is diagnosed with dwarfism. The parents ask if this autosomal dominant condition could occur again for future children. A. For each pregnancy there is a chance the child will have dwarfism. B. The dwarfism was probably caused by an infection during your pregnancy. C. There is a chance that each future child could be a carrier of the deflective gene. D. Because you already have an affected child, there is a decreased chance for this to happen again. A. For each pregnancy there is a chance the child will have dwarfism. Which findings would cause the nurse to suspect physical abuse in a pregnant client? A. The client has a history of sexually transmitted infections. B. The client has a mother who was physically abused. C. The client has a partner who accompanies her to all prenatal visits. D. Multiple bruises in various stages of healing are found on physical examination. D. Multiple bruises in various stages of healing are found on physical examination. A pregnant woman reports the following obstetric history: stillbirth at 19 week, miscarriage at 8 weeks, daughter born at 38 weeks and son born at 29 wks. What is her GTPAL? A. G5 T2 P1 A2 L2 B. G5 T1 P1 A2 L2 C. G4 T1 P1 A2 L2 D. G4 T1 P2 A1 L2 B. G5 T1 P1 A2 L2 The nurse is caring for a pregnant client who reports fatigue due to anemia. Which intervention best helps manage anemia for pregnant clients? A. Advise the client to take frequent rest periods B. Counsel the client on iron rich food sources and nutrient dense food options C. Discuss the use of support systems with the client D. Reassure the client of the transitory nature of fatigue during pregnancy B. Counsel the client on iron rich food sources and nutrient dense food options A client in the first trimester of pregnancy tells the nurse, "l urinate frequently and am not able to hold urine for very long." What information is relevant to impart to this client? A. Space out your fluid intake by drinking approximately 100 ml every 4 hours B. Alternate with heat and ice in the area over the bladder C. Educate the client on how this will resolve as the pregnancy progresses D. Educate the client on how to perform Kegel exercises D. Educate the client on how to perform Kegel exercises A nurse is educating about the nomal discomforts of pregnancy. Which client should be triaged first? A. Client at 34 weeks reports dear watery vaginal discharge and is wearing a pad to catch the fluid B. Client at 30 weeks with darkened butterfly pigmentation noted on her face C. Client at 24 weeks complaining of some swelling in her legs and ankles at the end of the day D. Client at 36 weeks complaining of urinary frequency A. Client at 34 weeks reports dear watery vaginal discharge and is wearing a pad to catch the fluid A client at 36 weeks gestation had a BPP completed with a score of 6/8. Which client statement is correct abut this procedure? A. This test measures blood flow in the umbilical artery. B. All findings were normal for me at this gestational age. C. I will need to have a non-stress test C. I will need to have a non-stress test A client presents to the physician's office with complaints Of right-sided abdominal pain, dizziness, and vaginal bleeding. A pelvic exam determines the client to be 10 weeks gestation with abdominal tenderness. What diagnosis should the nurse suspect? A. Threatened abortion B. Appendicitis C. Cholelithiasis D. Ectopic pregnancy D. Ectopic pregnancy A prenatal client at 16 weeks gestation presents to the clinic with unexplained, bright red bleeding, cramping, and backache for the past two days. A pelvic exam reveals a closed cervix. What type of abortion does this indicate? A. Imminent B. Threatened C. Missed D. Incomplete B. Threatened The nurse is caring for a laboring client with sickle cell anemia. Which therapy should the nurse anticipate the provider ordering? A. Oxygen B. Diuretics C. Magnesium sulfate D. Bronchodilators A. Oxygen The nurse is teaching a client with diabetes about insulin requirements during pregnancy. Which statement is true regarding insulin requirements? A. Insulin needs decrease early in the first trimester. B. Insulin needs decrease late in the first trimester. C. Insulin needs decrease in the third trimester. D. Insulin needs are not affected by pregnancy. A. Insulin needs decrease early in the first trimester. A client at 28 weeks gestation is admitted to the labor and birth unit. Which test might be used first to assess the client's fetal well being? A. Chorionic Villus Sampling (CVS) B. Contraction stress test (CST) C. Biophysical profile (BPP) D. Amniocentesis C. Biophysical profile (BPP) Quick, first test to use What if they're not contracting? You cannot even use CST Amniocentesis is invasive A nurse teaches a pregnant woman about the presumptive, probable, and positive signs of pregnancy. The woman demonstrates understanding of the nurse's instructions if she states that a presumptive sign of pregnancy is: A. abdominal enlargement B. positive pregnancy test C. N/V D. Hegar's sign C. N/V During a physical examination, a client who is 36 weeks pregnant becomes pale, dizzy, and light headed while supine. Which action would the nurse do first? A. Measure the client's BP B. Listen to fetal heart tones C. Ask the client to breathe deeply D. Turn the client to the left side D. Turn the client to the left side Which finding indicates normal characteristics of amniotic fluid and the best method to help diagnose ruptured amniotic membranes? A. Clear with a moderate amount of blood, metallic smell; Nitrazine (pH) paper B. Clear fluid, fishy smell; fern test C. Clear with brownish-green substances, slight odor; pooling visualized D. Clear with flakes of white, minimal scent; Amnisure test D. Clear with flakes of white, minimal scent; Amnisure test Women of reproductive age should take this vitamin supplement in order to reduce the risk for neural tube defects? A. calcium B. folic acid C. thiamine D. niacin B. folic acid An expectant father complains of having problems sleeping and an increased appetite like his partner. The nurse recognizes this is an example of which of the following? A. Introversion B. Ambivalence C. Acceptance D. Couvade D. Couvade The nurse is providing nutritional counseling to a client who is pregnant with her first baby. The client's pre-pregnancy weight was 142 lbs. and she is 5 feet 6 inches tall. How many pounds should the client weigh at the end of a term pregnancy if she follows the proper guidelines? A. 157-167 B. 152-162 C. 167-177 D. 165-175 C. 167-177 After determining that a pregnant client has a B-negative blood type, a provider orders an indirect Coombs' test. What is the purpose of performing this test in a pregnant client? A. To detect maternal antibodies against fetal Rh negative factor B. To determine the maternal blood Rh factor C. To determine the fetal blood Rh factor D. To detect maternal antibodies against fetal Rh positive factor D. To detect maternal antibodies against fetal Rh positive factor A pregnant client is positive for HIV. The client asks the nurse if her newborn will contract the virus. What is the best response by the nurse? A. The newborn will also have the HIV virus since you are positive. B. HIV can only be transmitted through sexual contact. C. The newborn will have signs of HIV at birth if the baby has it. D. The newborn has a risk of contracting the infection since you are positive. D. The newborn has a risk of contracting the infection since you are positive. A NURSE IS REVIEWING THE ASSESSMENT FINDINGS AND LAB VALUES FOR A PREECLAMPTIC CLIENT. WHICH FINDING WOULD WARRANT A CALL TO THE PROVIDER? A. 24-hour urine protein level of 200 milligrams B. Frontal headache relieved with acetaminophen C. Urine output of 225 ml over the last 4 hours D. Report of right upper quadrant pain unrelieved with antacids and pain medication D. Report of right upper quadrant pain unrelieved with antacids and pain medication 24 hour protein level of 200 mg isn't considered abnormal C is more than minimum When reporting unrelieved pain we're worried about liver distension