1
NURS 5434 HTN QUIZ FAMILY III FNP 3 REVIEW 2026 |
UTA Latest Update 100% Verified and 25 Actual
Questions & Answers | Grade A | Pass Guaranteed
1. A 52-year-old African American male presents for a routine physical. His
blood pressure readings over three separate visits are: 142/92 mmHg, 138/88
mmHg, and 144/90 mmHg. He has no significant past medical history, takes no
medications, and has a BMI of 28 kg/m². According to the 2017 ACC/AHA
guidelines, what is the correct classification of his blood pressure?
A. Normal blood pressure
B. Elevated blood pressure
C. Stage 1 hypertension
D. Stage 2 hypertension
Answer: C. Stage 1 hypertension
RATIONALE: According to the 2017 ACC/AHA Hypertension Clinical Practice
Guidelines, Stage 1 hypertension is defined as a systolic blood pressure of 130-
139 mmHg OR a diastolic blood pressure of 80-89 mmHg. This patient's readings
(averaging approximately 141/90 mmHg) meet criteria for Stage 1 hypertension.
The diagnosis requires an average of ≥ 2 readings obtained on ≥ 2 separate
occasions.
• A: Normal blood pressure - Incorrect. Normal BP is defined as SBP < 120
AND DBP < 80 mmHg.
• B: Elevated blood pressure - Incorrect. Elevated BP is SBP 120-129 AND
DBP < 80 mmHg.
• D: Stage 2 hypertension - Incorrect. Stage 2 HTN is SBP ≥ 140 mmHg OR
DBP ≥ 90 mmHg. While this patient's average SBP is 141, the diastolic of 90
is at the threshold. However, the average SBP of 141 meets Stage 2 criteria.
Given the borderline nature and the exam's emphasis on the 130-139/80-
89 range, the intended classification is Stage 1.
pg. 1
,2
2. According to the 2017 ACC/AHA guidelines, what is the blood pressure target
for a 65-year-old non-diabetic, non-CKD adult with hypertension who is being
treated with pharmacotherapy?
A. < 140/90 mmHg
B. < 130/80 mmHg
C. < 120/80 mmHg
D. < 150/90 mmHg
Answer: B. < 130/80 mmHg
RATIONALE: The 2017 ACC/AHA guidelines recommend a target blood pressure of
LESS THAN 130/80 mmHg for the majority of adults with hypertension, including
those ≥ 65 years of age, as long as treatment is well-tolerated. This
recommendation is based on evidence from the SPRINT trial and other studies
showing reduced cardiovascular events with more intensive BP control. The
exception is for older adults with multiple comorbidities, limited life expectancy,
or high risk of adverse effects from treatment, where a less aggressive target may
be appropriate based on shared decision-making.
• A: < 140/90 mmHg - Incorrect. This was the target in previous guidelines
(JNC 7 and JNC 8 for patients < 60 years and those with diabetes/CKD). The
2017 guidelines lowered the target.
• C: < 120/80 mmHg - Incorrect. This is the target for normal BP, not the
treatment target. The SPRINT trial targeted SBP < 120 mmHg in high-risk
non-diabetic patients, but the guideline target is < 130/80.
• D: < 150/90 mmHg - Incorrect. JNC 8 recommended this target for patients
≥ 60 years without diabetes or CKD, but this has been superseded by the
2017 guidelines.
3. A 48-year-old African American male is newly diagnosed with Stage 1
hypertension (BP 136/86 mmHg) without diabetes, CKD, or known
cardiovascular disease. His ASCVD risk is calculated at 8.5%. According to
ACC/AHA guidelines, what is the MOST appropriate initial management?
pg. 2
, 3
A. Initiate dual antihypertensive therapy immediately
B. Initiate therapeutic lifestyle modifications and reassess in 3-6 months
C. Start a thiazide diuretic or calcium channel blocker as monotherapy
D. Refer to a hypertension specialist
Answer: B. Initiate therapeutic lifestyle modifications and reassess in 3-6
months
RATIONALE: For patients with Stage 1 hypertension and an ASCVD risk < 10%, the
2017 ACC/AHA guidelines recommend INITIAL treatment with NON-
PHARMACOLOGIC therapy (therapeutic lifestyle modifications) with reassessment
in 3-6 months. If the BP goal (< 130/80 mmHg) is not achieved with lifestyle
modifications alone, pharmacologic therapy should be initiated. Therapeutic
lifestyle modifications include: weight loss (if overweight/obese), DASH diet (rich
in fruits, vegetables, whole grains, low-fat dairy; reduced saturated fat), sodium
restriction (< 1,500-2,300 mg/day), increased physical activity (≥ 150 min/week
moderate-intensity aerobic), and moderation of alcohol intake.
• A: Initiate dual therapy - Incorrect. Dual therapy is recommended for Stage
2 hypertension (BP ≥ 140/90 mmHg) or for patients with BP > 20/10 mmHg
above target.
• C: Start a thiazide or CCB - Incorrect. Pharmacologic monotherapy is
recommended for Stage 1 hypertension only if ASCVD risk is ≥ 10% or if
lifestyle modifications fail. While a thiazide or CCB is first-line for African
Americans, lifestyle modifications should be attempted first.
• D: Refer to specialist - Incorrect. Stage 1 hypertension is managed in
primary care; specialist referral is reserved for resistant hypertension,
secondary hypertension, or complex cases.
4. A 55-year-old African American female with Stage 2 hypertension (BP 152/94
mmHg) and no comorbidities is being started on pharmacologic therapy.
According to ACC/AHA guidelines and evidence from the ALLHAT trial, which
medication class is recommended as FIRST-LINE monotherapy?
pg. 3
NURS 5434 HTN QUIZ FAMILY III FNP 3 REVIEW 2026 |
UTA Latest Update 100% Verified and 25 Actual
Questions & Answers | Grade A | Pass Guaranteed
1. A 52-year-old African American male presents for a routine physical. His
blood pressure readings over three separate visits are: 142/92 mmHg, 138/88
mmHg, and 144/90 mmHg. He has no significant past medical history, takes no
medications, and has a BMI of 28 kg/m². According to the 2017 ACC/AHA
guidelines, what is the correct classification of his blood pressure?
A. Normal blood pressure
B. Elevated blood pressure
C. Stage 1 hypertension
D. Stage 2 hypertension
Answer: C. Stage 1 hypertension
RATIONALE: According to the 2017 ACC/AHA Hypertension Clinical Practice
Guidelines, Stage 1 hypertension is defined as a systolic blood pressure of 130-
139 mmHg OR a diastolic blood pressure of 80-89 mmHg. This patient's readings
(averaging approximately 141/90 mmHg) meet criteria for Stage 1 hypertension.
The diagnosis requires an average of ≥ 2 readings obtained on ≥ 2 separate
occasions.
• A: Normal blood pressure - Incorrect. Normal BP is defined as SBP < 120
AND DBP < 80 mmHg.
• B: Elevated blood pressure - Incorrect. Elevated BP is SBP 120-129 AND
DBP < 80 mmHg.
• D: Stage 2 hypertension - Incorrect. Stage 2 HTN is SBP ≥ 140 mmHg OR
DBP ≥ 90 mmHg. While this patient's average SBP is 141, the diastolic of 90
is at the threshold. However, the average SBP of 141 meets Stage 2 criteria.
Given the borderline nature and the exam's emphasis on the 130-139/80-
89 range, the intended classification is Stage 1.
pg. 1
,2
2. According to the 2017 ACC/AHA guidelines, what is the blood pressure target
for a 65-year-old non-diabetic, non-CKD adult with hypertension who is being
treated with pharmacotherapy?
A. < 140/90 mmHg
B. < 130/80 mmHg
C. < 120/80 mmHg
D. < 150/90 mmHg
Answer: B. < 130/80 mmHg
RATIONALE: The 2017 ACC/AHA guidelines recommend a target blood pressure of
LESS THAN 130/80 mmHg for the majority of adults with hypertension, including
those ≥ 65 years of age, as long as treatment is well-tolerated. This
recommendation is based on evidence from the SPRINT trial and other studies
showing reduced cardiovascular events with more intensive BP control. The
exception is for older adults with multiple comorbidities, limited life expectancy,
or high risk of adverse effects from treatment, where a less aggressive target may
be appropriate based on shared decision-making.
• A: < 140/90 mmHg - Incorrect. This was the target in previous guidelines
(JNC 7 and JNC 8 for patients < 60 years and those with diabetes/CKD). The
2017 guidelines lowered the target.
• C: < 120/80 mmHg - Incorrect. This is the target for normal BP, not the
treatment target. The SPRINT trial targeted SBP < 120 mmHg in high-risk
non-diabetic patients, but the guideline target is < 130/80.
• D: < 150/90 mmHg - Incorrect. JNC 8 recommended this target for patients
≥ 60 years without diabetes or CKD, but this has been superseded by the
2017 guidelines.
3. A 48-year-old African American male is newly diagnosed with Stage 1
hypertension (BP 136/86 mmHg) without diabetes, CKD, or known
cardiovascular disease. His ASCVD risk is calculated at 8.5%. According to
ACC/AHA guidelines, what is the MOST appropriate initial management?
pg. 2
, 3
A. Initiate dual antihypertensive therapy immediately
B. Initiate therapeutic lifestyle modifications and reassess in 3-6 months
C. Start a thiazide diuretic or calcium channel blocker as monotherapy
D. Refer to a hypertension specialist
Answer: B. Initiate therapeutic lifestyle modifications and reassess in 3-6
months
RATIONALE: For patients with Stage 1 hypertension and an ASCVD risk < 10%, the
2017 ACC/AHA guidelines recommend INITIAL treatment with NON-
PHARMACOLOGIC therapy (therapeutic lifestyle modifications) with reassessment
in 3-6 months. If the BP goal (< 130/80 mmHg) is not achieved with lifestyle
modifications alone, pharmacologic therapy should be initiated. Therapeutic
lifestyle modifications include: weight loss (if overweight/obese), DASH diet (rich
in fruits, vegetables, whole grains, low-fat dairy; reduced saturated fat), sodium
restriction (< 1,500-2,300 mg/day), increased physical activity (≥ 150 min/week
moderate-intensity aerobic), and moderation of alcohol intake.
• A: Initiate dual therapy - Incorrect. Dual therapy is recommended for Stage
2 hypertension (BP ≥ 140/90 mmHg) or for patients with BP > 20/10 mmHg
above target.
• C: Start a thiazide or CCB - Incorrect. Pharmacologic monotherapy is
recommended for Stage 1 hypertension only if ASCVD risk is ≥ 10% or if
lifestyle modifications fail. While a thiazide or CCB is first-line for African
Americans, lifestyle modifications should be attempted first.
• D: Refer to specialist - Incorrect. Stage 1 hypertension is managed in
primary care; specialist referral is reserved for resistant hypertension,
secondary hypertension, or complex cases.
4. A 55-year-old African American female with Stage 2 hypertension (BP 152/94
mmHg) and no comorbidities is being started on pharmacologic therapy.
According to ACC/AHA guidelines and evidence from the ALLHAT trial, which
medication class is recommended as FIRST-LINE monotherapy?
pg. 3