A 62-year-old patient presents with a wide, diffuse area of erythematous skin on their lower left
leg that is warm and tender to palpation. There is some edema involved. The most likely
diagnosis is: Question 1Select one: a. Cellulitis b. A diabetic ulcer c. Necrotizing fasciitis d.
Kaposi’s sarcoma
ChatGPT said:
The correct answer is:
a. Cellulitis ✅
Explanation:
Cellulitis → acute bacterial infection of the dermis and subcutaneous tissue.
❌❌ o Findings: diffuse erythema, warmth, tenderness, edema.
Diabetic ulcer → localized open sore, usually not diffuse erythema.
Necrotizing fasciitis → severe pain out of proportion, rapid progression, systemic
❌
toxicity.
Kaposi’s sarcoma → vascular tumor (HIV/AIDS), presents as purple-red nodules or
plaques, not acutely warm/tender.
👉 Final: Cellulitis.
Would you like me to also make a skin infection quick chart (cellulitis vs erysipelas vs nec fasc
vs ulcers) for your NUR-621 review?
You said:
Which scalp problem can be caused by a fever and certain drugs? Question 2Select one: a.
Alopecia areata b. Telogen effluvium (TE) c. Psoriasis d. Trichotillomania
ChatGPT said:
The correct answer is:
b. Telogen effluvium (TE) ✅
Explanation:
Telogen effluvium = diffuse, temporary hair shedding that occurs when a large number
of hairs shift into the telogen (resting) phase.
❌❌ o Triggers: fever, illness, surgery, childbirth, medications, stress.
Alopecia areata → autoimmune, patchy hair loss.
❌ Psoriasis → scaly, erythematous plaques, not drug/fever related.
Trichotillomania → compulsive hair pulling, not triggered by fever or drugs.
👉 Final: Telogen effluvium.
,Do you want me to also make a hair/scalp disorder comparison table (alopecia areata, TE,
tinea capitis, trichotillomania) for your exam prep?
You said:
A patient has a rubbery, smooth, round mass on their chest that is compressible and has a soft-to-
very-firm texture. What is the most likely diagnosis? Question 3Select one: a. An adenoma b. A
nevus c. A skin tag d. A lipoma
ChatGPT said:
The correct answer is:
d. A lipoma ✅
Explanation:
Lipoma → benign tumor of adipose tissue.
o Features: rubbery, smooth, round, compressible, can feel soft to firm, mobile
❌ under skin.
Adenoma → benign glandular tumor, usually internal organs (not soft subcutaneous
❌❌
chest mass).
Nevus → mole, pigmented lesion, not compressible.
Skin tag (acrochordon) → soft, pedunculated growth, not deep or compressible.
👉 Final: Lipoma.
Would you like me to also prepare a “common benign skin lesions” chart (lipoma, nevus, skin
tag, seborrheic keratosis) for quick recall?
You said:
When staging a malignant melanoma using Clark’s levels, which level extends into the reticular
dermis? Question 4Select one: a. Level III b. Level IV c. Level II d. Level I
ChatGPT said:
The correct answer is:
b. Level IV ✅
Explanation (Clark’s Levels of Melanoma Invasion):
Level I → confined to epidermis (in situ).
Level II → invades papillary dermis.
Level III → fills the papillary dermis but not into reticular dermis.
Level IV → invades the reticular dermis.
, Level V → invades subcutaneous tissue.
👉 Final: Level IV.
Do you want me to also create a Clark’s vs Breslow depth quick table for melanoma staging
(since both show up on exams)?
You said:
A 22-year-old has tinea versicolor. Which description is the most likely for this condition?
Question 5Select one: a. The patient has red papules on the face. b. There are round,
hypopigmented macules on the back. c. There are crusted plaques in the groin area. d. There are
white streaks on the neck.
ChatGPT said:
The correct answer is:
b. There are round, hypopigmented macules on the back. ✅
Explanation:
Tinea versicolor (pityriasis versicolor) = superficial fungal infection (Malassezia
species).
o Classic findings: round or oval hypopigmented or hyperpigmented macules
❌❌ with fine scaling, often on the back, chest, shoulders, or neck.
Red papules on face → acne, rosacea, or folliculitis.
❌ Crusted plaques in groin → more consistent with tinea cruris.
White streaks on neck → could describe lichen planus (Wickham’s striae), not
tinea versicolor.
👉 Final: Round, hypopigmented macules on the back.
Would you like me to also build a “common tinea infections quick chart” (corporis, cruris,
pedis, versicolor) for exam recall?
You said:
Which of the following statements about performing cryosurgery for actinic keratosis is true?
Question 6Select one: a. Every lesion should be biopsied after using liquid nitrogen. b. The
“freeze balls” should be approximately one-and-a-half times as wide as they are deep. c. It is
better to slightly overfreeze the area, so you only have to do it once. d. Using liquid nitrogen,
freeze each lesion for at least 30 seconds.
ChatGPT said:
The correct answer is:
leg that is warm and tender to palpation. There is some edema involved. The most likely
diagnosis is: Question 1Select one: a. Cellulitis b. A diabetic ulcer c. Necrotizing fasciitis d.
Kaposi’s sarcoma
ChatGPT said:
The correct answer is:
a. Cellulitis ✅
Explanation:
Cellulitis → acute bacterial infection of the dermis and subcutaneous tissue.
❌❌ o Findings: diffuse erythema, warmth, tenderness, edema.
Diabetic ulcer → localized open sore, usually not diffuse erythema.
Necrotizing fasciitis → severe pain out of proportion, rapid progression, systemic
❌
toxicity.
Kaposi’s sarcoma → vascular tumor (HIV/AIDS), presents as purple-red nodules or
plaques, not acutely warm/tender.
👉 Final: Cellulitis.
Would you like me to also make a skin infection quick chart (cellulitis vs erysipelas vs nec fasc
vs ulcers) for your NUR-621 review?
You said:
Which scalp problem can be caused by a fever and certain drugs? Question 2Select one: a.
Alopecia areata b. Telogen effluvium (TE) c. Psoriasis d. Trichotillomania
ChatGPT said:
The correct answer is:
b. Telogen effluvium (TE) ✅
Explanation:
Telogen effluvium = diffuse, temporary hair shedding that occurs when a large number
of hairs shift into the telogen (resting) phase.
❌❌ o Triggers: fever, illness, surgery, childbirth, medications, stress.
Alopecia areata → autoimmune, patchy hair loss.
❌ Psoriasis → scaly, erythematous plaques, not drug/fever related.
Trichotillomania → compulsive hair pulling, not triggered by fever or drugs.
👉 Final: Telogen effluvium.
,Do you want me to also make a hair/scalp disorder comparison table (alopecia areata, TE,
tinea capitis, trichotillomania) for your exam prep?
You said:
A patient has a rubbery, smooth, round mass on their chest that is compressible and has a soft-to-
very-firm texture. What is the most likely diagnosis? Question 3Select one: a. An adenoma b. A
nevus c. A skin tag d. A lipoma
ChatGPT said:
The correct answer is:
d. A lipoma ✅
Explanation:
Lipoma → benign tumor of adipose tissue.
o Features: rubbery, smooth, round, compressible, can feel soft to firm, mobile
❌ under skin.
Adenoma → benign glandular tumor, usually internal organs (not soft subcutaneous
❌❌
chest mass).
Nevus → mole, pigmented lesion, not compressible.
Skin tag (acrochordon) → soft, pedunculated growth, not deep or compressible.
👉 Final: Lipoma.
Would you like me to also prepare a “common benign skin lesions” chart (lipoma, nevus, skin
tag, seborrheic keratosis) for quick recall?
You said:
When staging a malignant melanoma using Clark’s levels, which level extends into the reticular
dermis? Question 4Select one: a. Level III b. Level IV c. Level II d. Level I
ChatGPT said:
The correct answer is:
b. Level IV ✅
Explanation (Clark’s Levels of Melanoma Invasion):
Level I → confined to epidermis (in situ).
Level II → invades papillary dermis.
Level III → fills the papillary dermis but not into reticular dermis.
Level IV → invades the reticular dermis.
, Level V → invades subcutaneous tissue.
👉 Final: Level IV.
Do you want me to also create a Clark’s vs Breslow depth quick table for melanoma staging
(since both show up on exams)?
You said:
A 22-year-old has tinea versicolor. Which description is the most likely for this condition?
Question 5Select one: a. The patient has red papules on the face. b. There are round,
hypopigmented macules on the back. c. There are crusted plaques in the groin area. d. There are
white streaks on the neck.
ChatGPT said:
The correct answer is:
b. There are round, hypopigmented macules on the back. ✅
Explanation:
Tinea versicolor (pityriasis versicolor) = superficial fungal infection (Malassezia
species).
o Classic findings: round or oval hypopigmented or hyperpigmented macules
❌❌ with fine scaling, often on the back, chest, shoulders, or neck.
Red papules on face → acne, rosacea, or folliculitis.
❌ Crusted plaques in groin → more consistent with tinea cruris.
White streaks on neck → could describe lichen planus (Wickham’s striae), not
tinea versicolor.
👉 Final: Round, hypopigmented macules on the back.
Would you like me to also build a “common tinea infections quick chart” (corporis, cruris,
pedis, versicolor) for exam recall?
You said:
Which of the following statements about performing cryosurgery for actinic keratosis is true?
Question 6Select one: a. Every lesion should be biopsied after using liquid nitrogen. b. The
“freeze balls” should be approximately one-and-a-half times as wide as they are deep. c. It is
better to slightly overfreeze the area, so you only have to do it once. d. Using liquid nitrogen,
freeze each lesion for at least 30 seconds.
ChatGPT said:
The correct answer is:
