ADULT HEALTH INTEGUMENTARY EXAM 1 LATEST
2026 UPDATE 100+ QUESTIONS AND DETAILED
VERIFIED ANSWERS FROM ACTUAL EXAMS TEST
GRADE A+
Question 1
A nurse assesses a client with a stage 3 pressure injury on the sacrum. Which
finding requires immediate intervention?
A) Pale, moist wound bed
B) Visible subcutaneous fat
C) Dry, black eschar over 50% of the wound
D) Serosanguineous drainage
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Dry, black eschar indicates devitalized tissue (eschar) that must be
debrided for healing in a stage 3 or 4 pressure injury, except on a stable heel. Pale,
moist tissue (A) is typical; visible fat (B) defines stage 3; serosanguineous drainage
(D) is common in healing wounds.
Question 2
A client with cellulitis of the lower leg has redness, warmth, and edema. Which
intervention should the nurse prioritize?
A) Apply a heating pad to the area
B) Elevate the leg above heart level
C) Massage the reddened area to improve circulation
D) Administer oral antifungals as prescribed
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Elevation reduces edema by promoting venous return and lymphatic
drainage. Heat (A) may increase inflammation; massage (C) can spread infection;
antifungals (D) treat fungal, not bacterial, cellulitis.
,Question 3
A nurse is teaching a client with psoriasis about topical corticosteroids. Which
statement indicates correct understanding?
A) “I will apply a thick layer to cover all plaques.”
B) “I will use occlusion with plastic wrap overnight.”
C) “I will stop the medication when my skin clears.”
D) “I will apply the cream to intertriginous areas sparingly.”
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Thin skin in intertriginous areas increases absorption and risk of
atrophy; sparing use is essential. Thick layers (A) waste medication; occlusion (B)
requires a prescription; stopping abruptly (C) causes rebound.
Question 4
A client presents with a target-like rash on the palms and oral ulcers after starting
lamotrigine. What is the nurse’s priority action?
A) Apply calamine lotion to the rash
B) Administer diphenhydramine for itching
C) Discontinue the lamotrigine and notify the provider
D) Reassure the client that this is a common side effect
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Target lesions and oral ulcers suggest Stevens-Johnson syndrome, a
life-threatening reaction. Immediate drug discontinuation is critical.
Antihistamines (B) and reassurance (D) delay care; lotion (A) is ineffective.
Question 5
A nurse assesses a dark-skinned client for cyanosis. Which site is most reliable?
A) Palms of the hands
B) Conjunctivae and oral mucosa
,C) Dorsum of the foot
D) Forearms
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Conjunctivae and oral mucosa have minimal melanin, making them
ideal for detecting cyanosis in dark skin. Palms (A) and dorsum (C) may show
pigmentation variations; forearms (D) are less sensitive.
Question 6
A client with herpes zoster reports severe burning pain. Which medication class is
most effective for this pain?
A) Opioids
B) Tricyclic antidepressants
C) NSAIDs
D) Topical antibiotics
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Tricyclic antidepressants (e.g., amitriptyline) modulate central pain
pathways in postherpetic neuralgia. Opioids (A) are second-line; NSAIDs (C) are for
nociceptive pain; antibiotics (D) have no analgesic effect.
Question 7
A nurse is caring for a client with pemphigus vulgaris. Which finding is most
concerning?
A) Flaccid bullae on the trunk
B) Nikolsky sign positive
C) Oral mucosal erosions
D) Serum electrolyte imbalance
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Electrolyte imbalance (hyponatremia, hypokalemia) from massive
fluid loss through denuded skin can lead to cardiac arrhythmias. Bullae (A),
, Nikolsky sign (B), and oral erosions (C) are expected but not immediately life-
threatening.
Question 8
A client has a negative patch test for nickel. Which instruction should the nurse
provide?
A) “Avoid all metal jewelry permanently.”
B) “You are not allergic to nickel; no restrictions are needed.”
C) “Use a barrier cream before wearing metal watches.”
D) “Wear only 24-karat gold jewelry.”
Correct Answer: B
*Explanation: A negative patch test rules out type IV hypersensitivity to nickel; no
avoidance is necessary. Avoidance (A) is unnecessary; barrier cream (C) is for
confirmed allergy; 24-karat gold (D) is not required.*
Question 9
A nurse is assessing a client’s surgical incision on postoperative day 3. Which sign
indicates a healthy healing process?
A) Purulent drainage
B) Wound edges with slight erythema
C) Edges well-approximated with minimal serous drainage
D) Foul odor from the dressing
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Well-approximated edges with minimal serous drainage indicate
normal healing (primary intention). Purulent drainage (A) suggests infection;
erythema (B) may be early infection; foul odor (D) indicates necrosis or infection.
Question 10
A client with atopic dermatitis asks about bathing. What is the best
2026 UPDATE 100+ QUESTIONS AND DETAILED
VERIFIED ANSWERS FROM ACTUAL EXAMS TEST
GRADE A+
Question 1
A nurse assesses a client with a stage 3 pressure injury on the sacrum. Which
finding requires immediate intervention?
A) Pale, moist wound bed
B) Visible subcutaneous fat
C) Dry, black eschar over 50% of the wound
D) Serosanguineous drainage
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Dry, black eschar indicates devitalized tissue (eschar) that must be
debrided for healing in a stage 3 or 4 pressure injury, except on a stable heel. Pale,
moist tissue (A) is typical; visible fat (B) defines stage 3; serosanguineous drainage
(D) is common in healing wounds.
Question 2
A client with cellulitis of the lower leg has redness, warmth, and edema. Which
intervention should the nurse prioritize?
A) Apply a heating pad to the area
B) Elevate the leg above heart level
C) Massage the reddened area to improve circulation
D) Administer oral antifungals as prescribed
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Elevation reduces edema by promoting venous return and lymphatic
drainage. Heat (A) may increase inflammation; massage (C) can spread infection;
antifungals (D) treat fungal, not bacterial, cellulitis.
,Question 3
A nurse is teaching a client with psoriasis about topical corticosteroids. Which
statement indicates correct understanding?
A) “I will apply a thick layer to cover all plaques.”
B) “I will use occlusion with plastic wrap overnight.”
C) “I will stop the medication when my skin clears.”
D) “I will apply the cream to intertriginous areas sparingly.”
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Thin skin in intertriginous areas increases absorption and risk of
atrophy; sparing use is essential. Thick layers (A) waste medication; occlusion (B)
requires a prescription; stopping abruptly (C) causes rebound.
Question 4
A client presents with a target-like rash on the palms and oral ulcers after starting
lamotrigine. What is the nurse’s priority action?
A) Apply calamine lotion to the rash
B) Administer diphenhydramine for itching
C) Discontinue the lamotrigine and notify the provider
D) Reassure the client that this is a common side effect
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Target lesions and oral ulcers suggest Stevens-Johnson syndrome, a
life-threatening reaction. Immediate drug discontinuation is critical.
Antihistamines (B) and reassurance (D) delay care; lotion (A) is ineffective.
Question 5
A nurse assesses a dark-skinned client for cyanosis. Which site is most reliable?
A) Palms of the hands
B) Conjunctivae and oral mucosa
,C) Dorsum of the foot
D) Forearms
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Conjunctivae and oral mucosa have minimal melanin, making them
ideal for detecting cyanosis in dark skin. Palms (A) and dorsum (C) may show
pigmentation variations; forearms (D) are less sensitive.
Question 6
A client with herpes zoster reports severe burning pain. Which medication class is
most effective for this pain?
A) Opioids
B) Tricyclic antidepressants
C) NSAIDs
D) Topical antibiotics
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Tricyclic antidepressants (e.g., amitriptyline) modulate central pain
pathways in postherpetic neuralgia. Opioids (A) are second-line; NSAIDs (C) are for
nociceptive pain; antibiotics (D) have no analgesic effect.
Question 7
A nurse is caring for a client with pemphigus vulgaris. Which finding is most
concerning?
A) Flaccid bullae on the trunk
B) Nikolsky sign positive
C) Oral mucosal erosions
D) Serum electrolyte imbalance
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Electrolyte imbalance (hyponatremia, hypokalemia) from massive
fluid loss through denuded skin can lead to cardiac arrhythmias. Bullae (A),
, Nikolsky sign (B), and oral erosions (C) are expected but not immediately life-
threatening.
Question 8
A client has a negative patch test for nickel. Which instruction should the nurse
provide?
A) “Avoid all metal jewelry permanently.”
B) “You are not allergic to nickel; no restrictions are needed.”
C) “Use a barrier cream before wearing metal watches.”
D) “Wear only 24-karat gold jewelry.”
Correct Answer: B
*Explanation: A negative patch test rules out type IV hypersensitivity to nickel; no
avoidance is necessary. Avoidance (A) is unnecessary; barrier cream (C) is for
confirmed allergy; 24-karat gold (D) is not required.*
Question 9
A nurse is assessing a client’s surgical incision on postoperative day 3. Which sign
indicates a healthy healing process?
A) Purulent drainage
B) Wound edges with slight erythema
C) Edges well-approximated with minimal serous drainage
D) Foul odor from the dressing
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Well-approximated edges with minimal serous drainage indicate
normal healing (primary intention). Purulent drainage (A) suggests infection;
erythema (B) may be early infection; foul odor (D) indicates necrosis or infection.
Question 10
A client with atopic dermatitis asks about bathing. What is the best
