ATI MATERNAL NEWBORN
PROCTORED EXAM 2026 EDITION
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
WITH RATIONALES/GRADED
A+/2026 UPDATE/100% CORRECT
/INSTANT DOWNLOAD
Section 1: Antepartum (Prenatal Care & Complications)
1. A nurse is teaching a client about physiological changes in pregnancy. Which
finding is considered normal?
• A. Decreased heart rate (bradycardia)
• B. Increased thyroid-binding globulin → Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pregnancy increases estrogen, leading to increased thyroid-binding
globulin. Bradycardia is not typical; mild tachycardia is normal.
• C. Decreased oxygen consumption
• D. Decreased blood volume
2. A client at 36 weeks gestation reports sudden, gushing clear fluid from the
vagina. Which action should the nurse take first?
• A. Check fetal heart rate → Correct Answer: A
Rationale: After rupture of membranes, prolapsed cord is a risk. FHR
assessment is priority.
• B. Perform a sterile speculum exam
• C. Assess for uterine contractions
• D. Notify the provider
3. A nurse is assessing a primigravida at 38 weeks. Which finding requires
immediate intervention?
• A. Blood pressure 138/88 mm Hg
• B. 1+ proteinuria
, • C. Hyperreflexia with clonus → Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Hyperreflexia + clonus indicates severe preeclampsia/seizure risk.
Needs magnesium sulfate.
• D. Mild pedal edema
4. A client with gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) at 32 weeks asks why she
needs a nonstress test (NST). The nurse’s best response is:
• A. "To check if your baby has diabetes."
• B. "To assess for fetal macrosomia."
• C. "To evaluate fetal well-being and oxygenation." → Correct Answer: C
Rationale: NST assesses fetal heart rate reactivity, indicating adequate
oxygenation.
• D. "To measure amniotic fluid volume."
5. Rho(D) immune globulin is indicated for an Rh-negative mother under which
condition?
• A. After an amniocentesis → Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Any potential fetomaternal hemorrhage (amniocentesis, abortion,
delivery, abdominal trauma) requires RhoGAM.
• B. Routine at 20 weeks
• C. Only after delivery of an Rh-positive newborn
• D. When mother has anti-Rh antibodies
6. A nurse suspects placental abruption in a client at 34 weeks. Which
assessment finding supports this?
• A. Painless bright red vaginal bleeding
• B. Board-like abdomen with dark red bleeding → Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Abruptio placentae causes painful, dark bleeding, uterine rigidity,
and often fetal distress.
• C. Gradual onset of hypotension
• D. Uterine atony
7. A client at 28 weeks has a positive 1-hour glucose challenge test (GCT) of 155
mg/dL. Next step?
• A. Diagnose gestational diabetes
• B. Repeat 1-hour GCT
• C. Schedule 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) → Correct Answer: C
Rationale: 1-hour GCT ≥140 mg/dL requires 3-hour OGTT for diagnosis.
• D. Start insulin therapy
, 8. Which finding indicates a positive response to magnesium sulfate therapy for
preeclampsia?
• A. Deep tendon reflexes 4+ → Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Goal is to prevent seizures; decreased reflexes (1+) indicate
therapeutic but safe level; 4+ indicates ongoing hyperreflexia.
• B. Deep tendon reflexes 1+
• C. Urinary output 20 mL/hr
• D. Respiratory rate 10/min
9. A nurse is providing education on folic acid. The recommended daily amount
during pregnancy is:
• A. 200 mcg
• B. 400 mcg → Correct Answer: B
Rationale: 400-800 mcg daily reduces neural tube defects. High-risk women
(e.g., previous NTD) need 4 mg.
• C. 1000 mcg
• D. 2000 mcg
10. A pregnant client with HIV should receive which intrapartum medication to
reduce vertical transmission?
• A. Acyclovir
• B. Zidovudine (AZT) IV → Correct Answer: B
Rationale: IV zidovudine during labor plus infant post-exposure prophylaxis
reduces transmission to <2%.
• C. Penicillin G
• D. Metronidazole
Section 2: Intrapartum (Labor & Delivery)
11. A nurse is assessing cervical dilation. Which finding indicates active phase of
labor?
• A. 0-3 cm, mild contractions
• B. 4-7 cm, moderate to strong contractions → Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Active phase = 4-7 cm with rapid cervical change. Latent phase = 0-
3 cm.
• C. 8-10 cm, strong contractions
• D. 10 cm fully dilated
PROCTORED EXAM 2026 EDITION
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
WITH RATIONALES/GRADED
A+/2026 UPDATE/100% CORRECT
/INSTANT DOWNLOAD
Section 1: Antepartum (Prenatal Care & Complications)
1. A nurse is teaching a client about physiological changes in pregnancy. Which
finding is considered normal?
• A. Decreased heart rate (bradycardia)
• B. Increased thyroid-binding globulin → Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pregnancy increases estrogen, leading to increased thyroid-binding
globulin. Bradycardia is not typical; mild tachycardia is normal.
• C. Decreased oxygen consumption
• D. Decreased blood volume
2. A client at 36 weeks gestation reports sudden, gushing clear fluid from the
vagina. Which action should the nurse take first?
• A. Check fetal heart rate → Correct Answer: A
Rationale: After rupture of membranes, prolapsed cord is a risk. FHR
assessment is priority.
• B. Perform a sterile speculum exam
• C. Assess for uterine contractions
• D. Notify the provider
3. A nurse is assessing a primigravida at 38 weeks. Which finding requires
immediate intervention?
• A. Blood pressure 138/88 mm Hg
• B. 1+ proteinuria
, • C. Hyperreflexia with clonus → Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Hyperreflexia + clonus indicates severe preeclampsia/seizure risk.
Needs magnesium sulfate.
• D. Mild pedal edema
4. A client with gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) at 32 weeks asks why she
needs a nonstress test (NST). The nurse’s best response is:
• A. "To check if your baby has diabetes."
• B. "To assess for fetal macrosomia."
• C. "To evaluate fetal well-being and oxygenation." → Correct Answer: C
Rationale: NST assesses fetal heart rate reactivity, indicating adequate
oxygenation.
• D. "To measure amniotic fluid volume."
5. Rho(D) immune globulin is indicated for an Rh-negative mother under which
condition?
• A. After an amniocentesis → Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Any potential fetomaternal hemorrhage (amniocentesis, abortion,
delivery, abdominal trauma) requires RhoGAM.
• B. Routine at 20 weeks
• C. Only after delivery of an Rh-positive newborn
• D. When mother has anti-Rh antibodies
6. A nurse suspects placental abruption in a client at 34 weeks. Which
assessment finding supports this?
• A. Painless bright red vaginal bleeding
• B. Board-like abdomen with dark red bleeding → Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Abruptio placentae causes painful, dark bleeding, uterine rigidity,
and often fetal distress.
• C. Gradual onset of hypotension
• D. Uterine atony
7. A client at 28 weeks has a positive 1-hour glucose challenge test (GCT) of 155
mg/dL. Next step?
• A. Diagnose gestational diabetes
• B. Repeat 1-hour GCT
• C. Schedule 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) → Correct Answer: C
Rationale: 1-hour GCT ≥140 mg/dL requires 3-hour OGTT for diagnosis.
• D. Start insulin therapy
, 8. Which finding indicates a positive response to magnesium sulfate therapy for
preeclampsia?
• A. Deep tendon reflexes 4+ → Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Goal is to prevent seizures; decreased reflexes (1+) indicate
therapeutic but safe level; 4+ indicates ongoing hyperreflexia.
• B. Deep tendon reflexes 1+
• C. Urinary output 20 mL/hr
• D. Respiratory rate 10/min
9. A nurse is providing education on folic acid. The recommended daily amount
during pregnancy is:
• A. 200 mcg
• B. 400 mcg → Correct Answer: B
Rationale: 400-800 mcg daily reduces neural tube defects. High-risk women
(e.g., previous NTD) need 4 mg.
• C. 1000 mcg
• D. 2000 mcg
10. A pregnant client with HIV should receive which intrapartum medication to
reduce vertical transmission?
• A. Acyclovir
• B. Zidovudine (AZT) IV → Correct Answer: B
Rationale: IV zidovudine during labor plus infant post-exposure prophylaxis
reduces transmission to <2%.
• C. Penicillin G
• D. Metronidazole
Section 2: Intrapartum (Labor & Delivery)
11. A nurse is assessing cervical dilation. Which finding indicates active phase of
labor?
• A. 0-3 cm, mild contractions
• B. 4-7 cm, moderate to strong contractions → Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Active phase = 4-7 cm with rapid cervical change. Latent phase = 0-
3 cm.
• C. 8-10 cm, strong contractions
• D. 10 cm fully dilated
