ATI RN FUNDAMENTALS ONLINE
PRACTICE ASSESSMENT 2026 –
TOPIC TEST QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALES/GRADED A+/2026
UPDATE/100% CORRECT
/INSTANT DOWNLOAD
1. Safety & Infection Control
1. A nurse is preparing to insert an indwelling urinary catheter for a female client.
Which of the following actions demonstrates sterile technique?
A. Opening the catheter package before donning sterile gloves
B. Using clean gloves to handle the catheter after sterile gloves are removed
C. Placing the sterile drape with the water-repellent side down
D. Positioning the client with legs adducted
Rationale: The sterile drape’s water-repellent side should face down to prevent
moisture from contaminating the sterile field.
2. A client on contact precautions for Clostridium difficile requires a blood draw.
Which PPE is essential?
A. Surgical mask and goggles
B. N95 respirator and gown
C. Gloves and gown
D. Face shield only
Rationale: Contact precautions require gloves + gown for any direct contact with the
client or environment.
,3. A nurse discovers a small fire in a client’s trash can. Place the following actions in
correct order (RACE):
1. Rescue clients in immediate danger
2. Activate the fire alarm
3. Confine the fire
4. Extinguish the fire
Correct order: 1, 2, 3, 4
Rationale: RACE protocol ensures life safety first, then containment.
4. Which client poses the highest risk for falls?
A. 45-year-old post-appendectomy
B. 72-year-old receiving furosemide
C. 88-year-old with confusion and getting up frequently at night
D. 60-year-old with controlled hypertension
Rationale: Older age + confusion + frequent unsupervised ambulation are high fall
risks.
5. A nurse is applying restraints to a confused client. Which is correct?
A. Tie restraints to the side rail
B. Obtain a provider’s order within 15–30 minutes of application
C. Remove restraints every 4 hours
D. Apply four-point restraints for all agitated clients
Rationale: Restraints require an order soon after emergency application; reassess
q2h minimum.
2. Vital Signs & Physical Assessment
, 6. Normal oral temperature range for an adult is:
A. 35.0–36.0°C
B. 36.5–37.5°C
C. 37.5–38.5°C
D. 38.0–39.0°C
Rationale: 97.7–99.5°F (36.5–37.5°C) is average.
7. A client’s BP is 148/94 mm Hg. What is the pulse pressure?
A. 44 mm Hg
B. 54 mm Hg
C. 54 mm Hg
D. 64 mm Hg
Rationale: Pulse pressure = systolic – diastolic (148 – 94 = 54).
8. When assessing a client’s respirations, the nurse should:
A. Tell the client to breathe normally
B. Count for 15 seconds and multiply by 4
C. Count for 30 seconds if regular, 60 seconds if irregular
D. Count after taking temperature
Rationale: Full 60 seconds for irregular pattern prevents error.
9. A nurse palpates a weak, thready pulse at 110/min. This indicates:
A. Possible shock or decreased stroke volume
B. Normal finding after exercise
C. Bounding pulse from hypertension
D. Irregular rhythm from atrial fibrillation
Rationale: Weak + fast pulse suggests reduced cardiac output.
PRACTICE ASSESSMENT 2026 –
TOPIC TEST QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALES/GRADED A+/2026
UPDATE/100% CORRECT
/INSTANT DOWNLOAD
1. Safety & Infection Control
1. A nurse is preparing to insert an indwelling urinary catheter for a female client.
Which of the following actions demonstrates sterile technique?
A. Opening the catheter package before donning sterile gloves
B. Using clean gloves to handle the catheter after sterile gloves are removed
C. Placing the sterile drape with the water-repellent side down
D. Positioning the client with legs adducted
Rationale: The sterile drape’s water-repellent side should face down to prevent
moisture from contaminating the sterile field.
2. A client on contact precautions for Clostridium difficile requires a blood draw.
Which PPE is essential?
A. Surgical mask and goggles
B. N95 respirator and gown
C. Gloves and gown
D. Face shield only
Rationale: Contact precautions require gloves + gown for any direct contact with the
client or environment.
,3. A nurse discovers a small fire in a client’s trash can. Place the following actions in
correct order (RACE):
1. Rescue clients in immediate danger
2. Activate the fire alarm
3. Confine the fire
4. Extinguish the fire
Correct order: 1, 2, 3, 4
Rationale: RACE protocol ensures life safety first, then containment.
4. Which client poses the highest risk for falls?
A. 45-year-old post-appendectomy
B. 72-year-old receiving furosemide
C. 88-year-old with confusion and getting up frequently at night
D. 60-year-old with controlled hypertension
Rationale: Older age + confusion + frequent unsupervised ambulation are high fall
risks.
5. A nurse is applying restraints to a confused client. Which is correct?
A. Tie restraints to the side rail
B. Obtain a provider’s order within 15–30 minutes of application
C. Remove restraints every 4 hours
D. Apply four-point restraints for all agitated clients
Rationale: Restraints require an order soon after emergency application; reassess
q2h minimum.
2. Vital Signs & Physical Assessment
, 6. Normal oral temperature range for an adult is:
A. 35.0–36.0°C
B. 36.5–37.5°C
C. 37.5–38.5°C
D. 38.0–39.0°C
Rationale: 97.7–99.5°F (36.5–37.5°C) is average.
7. A client’s BP is 148/94 mm Hg. What is the pulse pressure?
A. 44 mm Hg
B. 54 mm Hg
C. 54 mm Hg
D. 64 mm Hg
Rationale: Pulse pressure = systolic – diastolic (148 – 94 = 54).
8. When assessing a client’s respirations, the nurse should:
A. Tell the client to breathe normally
B. Count for 15 seconds and multiply by 4
C. Count for 30 seconds if regular, 60 seconds if irregular
D. Count after taking temperature
Rationale: Full 60 seconds for irregular pattern prevents error.
9. A nurse palpates a weak, thready pulse at 110/min. This indicates:
A. Possible shock or decreased stroke volume
B. Normal finding after exercise
C. Bounding pulse from hypertension
D. Irregular rhythm from atrial fibrillation
Rationale: Weak + fast pulse suggests reduced cardiac output.
