USPA D License ACTUAL EXAM
2026/2027 | Well Sorted Q&A | Graded
A+ | Best for Good Grade | Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Category 1: Canopy Control (15 Questions)
Q1: While landing a lightly loaded 210-square-foot canopy in a 12 mph direct crosswind from the left,
the appropriate landing technique is:
A. Land straight into the wind regardless of runway alignment
B. Flare early and accept a downwind landing
C. Approach angled into the crosswind and turn into the wind before flaring [CORRECT]
D. Land with the crosswind and slide sideways into the landing
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In a crosswind, the proper technique is to fly a crabbed approach angled into the wind, then
perform a "kick-turn" (downwind turn) just before flaring so the canopy aligns with the wind direction.
Landing with a crosswind component increases risk of ankle injury and canopy drag.
Q2: A D-license holder deploys at 3,500 feet AGL and immediately observes a spinning malfunction with
line twists and a partially inflated end cell. The canopy is not responding to steering inputs. What is the
correct emergency procedure?
A. Ride the spinning malfunction to 1,500 feet before deciding
B. Pull the reserve without cutting away (two-out situation)
C. Cut away immediately, then deploy reserve after a stable delay [CORRECT]
D. Reach up and untwist the lines while spinning
Correct Answer: C
,Rationale: A spinning high-speed malfunction will accelerate rotation and increase line twist severity.
The correct EP is cut away immediately, stabilize, then deploy reserve. Waiting reduces altitude and
pulling reserve without cutting away creates a dangerous two-out situation.
Q3: When performing a front riser turn on a modern nine-cell canopy, compared to a rear riser turn of
the same degree:
A. The front riser turn produces a larger turn radius with less altitude loss
B. The front riser turn produces a smaller turn radius but dives more aggressively [CORRECT]
C. The front riser turn and rear riser turn lose identical amounts of altitude
D. The rear riser turn always produces a steeper dive than the front riser turn
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Front riser turns deflect the nose of the canopy, creating a tighter turn radius and inducing a
more aggressive dive due to increased forward speed and momentum. Rear riser turns affect the tail,
producing flatter turns that conserve more altitude.
Q4: During a downwind landing in 15 mph winds, a D-license holder should:
A. Flare at the normal altitude since the canopy's airspeed remains constant
B. Flare earlier than normal to compensate for higher ground speed [CORRECT]
C. Perform a 180-degree turn below 500 feet to face into the wind
D. Land with feet apart to increase stability
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Downwind landings result in significantly higher ground speed. An earlier flare helps reduce
the rate of descent and forward speed before touchdown. Turning below 500 feet is prohibited due to
low-altitude hazard, and feet should remain together for a PLF if necessary.
Q5: The minimum opening altitude for C- and D-license holders according to USPA BSRs is:
A. 3,000 feet AGL
B. 2,500 feet AGL [CORRECT]
C. 2,000 feet AGL
D. 1,500 feet AGL
Correct Answer: B
,Rationale: USPA BSR Section 2-1.I specifies that C- and D-license holders have a minimum container
opening altitude of 2,500 feet AGL, waiverable to no lower than 2,000 feet AGL. Students and A-license
holders must open by 3,000 feet AGL.
Q6: A jumper notices their canopy is in a flight cycle (surge) after an aggressive toggle input. The safest
recovery technique is:
A. Pull the opposite toggle hard to counter the surge
B. Allow the canopy to recover naturally while maintaining heading awareness
C. Slowly raise the toggles over 3–4 seconds to prevent further surge [CORRECT]
D. Immediately cut away if above 1,000 feet
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A flight cycle occurs when the canopy responds to input and swings back. Slowly raising
toggles over 3–4 seconds prevents the nose from pitching forward and surging. Quick recovery can
induce line twists or an uncontrolled dive.
Q7: When landing in turbulence behind a tree line or building, the jumper should:
A. Maintain full glide speed to power through the turbulence
B. Fly in half-brakes to reduce the effect of turbulent eddies [CORRECT]
C. Perform S-turns to avoid the turbulent zone entirely
D. Cut away and deploy the reserve if turbulence is encountered above 1,000 feet
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Flying in half-brakes reduces the canopy's airspeed and makes it less susceptible to turbulent
eddies and collapses. Full glide increases the risk of asymmetric collapse, and S-turns on final are
hazardous due to low altitude.
Q8: The "sweet spot" for flaring a canopy refers to:
A. The altitude at which the pilot chute is fully extracted
B. The toggle position that produces maximum lift before stall onset [CORRECT]
C. The point where the A-lines are fully extended
D. The moment when the slider fully collapses
Correct Answer: B
, Rationale: The sweet spot is the toggle position during flare that generates maximum lift without stalling
the canopy. Finding this position is essential for soft stand-up landings and varies by canopy design and
wing loading.
Q9: A D-license holder is landing a 150 sq ft canopy loaded at 1.2:1 in no wind. According to USPA
canopy piloting guidance, this canopy is considered:
A. Docile and suitable for a student
B. Moderate performance requiring basic canopy training
C. High performance due to wing loading and size [CORRECT]
D. Only high performance if it is elliptical in design
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: USPA defines canopies smaller than 150 square feet as high performance at any wing loading.
Additionally, canopies from 150–189 sq ft at 0.9 lb/sq ft or more are high performance. This 150 sq ft
canopy at 1.2:1 meets both criteria.
Q10: When using rear risers to steer immediately after opening (with brakes still stowed), the primary
advantage is:
A. Increased forward speed compared to toggles
B. Quicker heading changes with less forward momentum to overcome [CORRECT]
C. Better flare capability than toggles
D. Reduced risk of line twists during the turn
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: With brakes stowed, the canopy has less forward momentum. Rear risers operate more than
the entire back quarter of the canopy, allowing quick heading changes for collision avoidance
immediately after deployment.
Q11: During a braked turn, the canopy:
A. Loses more altitude than a toggle turn of the same degree
B. Maintains a flatter glide and slower descent rate [CORRECT]
C. Stalls more easily than in full flight
D. Cannot be used below 1,000 feet AGL
Correct Answer: B
2026/2027 | Well Sorted Q&A | Graded
A+ | Best for Good Grade | Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Category 1: Canopy Control (15 Questions)
Q1: While landing a lightly loaded 210-square-foot canopy in a 12 mph direct crosswind from the left,
the appropriate landing technique is:
A. Land straight into the wind regardless of runway alignment
B. Flare early and accept a downwind landing
C. Approach angled into the crosswind and turn into the wind before flaring [CORRECT]
D. Land with the crosswind and slide sideways into the landing
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In a crosswind, the proper technique is to fly a crabbed approach angled into the wind, then
perform a "kick-turn" (downwind turn) just before flaring so the canopy aligns with the wind direction.
Landing with a crosswind component increases risk of ankle injury and canopy drag.
Q2: A D-license holder deploys at 3,500 feet AGL and immediately observes a spinning malfunction with
line twists and a partially inflated end cell. The canopy is not responding to steering inputs. What is the
correct emergency procedure?
A. Ride the spinning malfunction to 1,500 feet before deciding
B. Pull the reserve without cutting away (two-out situation)
C. Cut away immediately, then deploy reserve after a stable delay [CORRECT]
D. Reach up and untwist the lines while spinning
Correct Answer: C
,Rationale: A spinning high-speed malfunction will accelerate rotation and increase line twist severity.
The correct EP is cut away immediately, stabilize, then deploy reserve. Waiting reduces altitude and
pulling reserve without cutting away creates a dangerous two-out situation.
Q3: When performing a front riser turn on a modern nine-cell canopy, compared to a rear riser turn of
the same degree:
A. The front riser turn produces a larger turn radius with less altitude loss
B. The front riser turn produces a smaller turn radius but dives more aggressively [CORRECT]
C. The front riser turn and rear riser turn lose identical amounts of altitude
D. The rear riser turn always produces a steeper dive than the front riser turn
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Front riser turns deflect the nose of the canopy, creating a tighter turn radius and inducing a
more aggressive dive due to increased forward speed and momentum. Rear riser turns affect the tail,
producing flatter turns that conserve more altitude.
Q4: During a downwind landing in 15 mph winds, a D-license holder should:
A. Flare at the normal altitude since the canopy's airspeed remains constant
B. Flare earlier than normal to compensate for higher ground speed [CORRECT]
C. Perform a 180-degree turn below 500 feet to face into the wind
D. Land with feet apart to increase stability
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Downwind landings result in significantly higher ground speed. An earlier flare helps reduce
the rate of descent and forward speed before touchdown. Turning below 500 feet is prohibited due to
low-altitude hazard, and feet should remain together for a PLF if necessary.
Q5: The minimum opening altitude for C- and D-license holders according to USPA BSRs is:
A. 3,000 feet AGL
B. 2,500 feet AGL [CORRECT]
C. 2,000 feet AGL
D. 1,500 feet AGL
Correct Answer: B
,Rationale: USPA BSR Section 2-1.I specifies that C- and D-license holders have a minimum container
opening altitude of 2,500 feet AGL, waiverable to no lower than 2,000 feet AGL. Students and A-license
holders must open by 3,000 feet AGL.
Q6: A jumper notices their canopy is in a flight cycle (surge) after an aggressive toggle input. The safest
recovery technique is:
A. Pull the opposite toggle hard to counter the surge
B. Allow the canopy to recover naturally while maintaining heading awareness
C. Slowly raise the toggles over 3–4 seconds to prevent further surge [CORRECT]
D. Immediately cut away if above 1,000 feet
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A flight cycle occurs when the canopy responds to input and swings back. Slowly raising
toggles over 3–4 seconds prevents the nose from pitching forward and surging. Quick recovery can
induce line twists or an uncontrolled dive.
Q7: When landing in turbulence behind a tree line or building, the jumper should:
A. Maintain full glide speed to power through the turbulence
B. Fly in half-brakes to reduce the effect of turbulent eddies [CORRECT]
C. Perform S-turns to avoid the turbulent zone entirely
D. Cut away and deploy the reserve if turbulence is encountered above 1,000 feet
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Flying in half-brakes reduces the canopy's airspeed and makes it less susceptible to turbulent
eddies and collapses. Full glide increases the risk of asymmetric collapse, and S-turns on final are
hazardous due to low altitude.
Q8: The "sweet spot" for flaring a canopy refers to:
A. The altitude at which the pilot chute is fully extracted
B. The toggle position that produces maximum lift before stall onset [CORRECT]
C. The point where the A-lines are fully extended
D. The moment when the slider fully collapses
Correct Answer: B
, Rationale: The sweet spot is the toggle position during flare that generates maximum lift without stalling
the canopy. Finding this position is essential for soft stand-up landings and varies by canopy design and
wing loading.
Q9: A D-license holder is landing a 150 sq ft canopy loaded at 1.2:1 in no wind. According to USPA
canopy piloting guidance, this canopy is considered:
A. Docile and suitable for a student
B. Moderate performance requiring basic canopy training
C. High performance due to wing loading and size [CORRECT]
D. Only high performance if it is elliptical in design
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: USPA defines canopies smaller than 150 square feet as high performance at any wing loading.
Additionally, canopies from 150–189 sq ft at 0.9 lb/sq ft or more are high performance. This 150 sq ft
canopy at 1.2:1 meets both criteria.
Q10: When using rear risers to steer immediately after opening (with brakes still stowed), the primary
advantage is:
A. Increased forward speed compared to toggles
B. Quicker heading changes with less forward momentum to overcome [CORRECT]
C. Better flare capability than toggles
D. Reduced risk of line twists during the turn
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: With brakes stowed, the canopy has less forward momentum. Rear risers operate more than
the entire back quarter of the canopy, allowing quick heading changes for collision avoidance
immediately after deployment.
Q11: During a braked turn, the canopy:
A. Loses more altitude than a toggle turn of the same degree
B. Maintains a flatter glide and slower descent rate [CORRECT]
C. Stalls more easily than in full flight
D. Cannot be used below 1,000 feet AGL
Correct Answer: B
