ATI CMS Fundamentals ACTUAL
EXAM 2026/2027 | 160+ Q&A with
Rationales | Verified Q&A | Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Section 1: Safety & Infection Control (Questions 1–20)
Q1: A nurse enters the room of a client on contact precautions for Clostridioides difficile. Which action
demonstrates correct technique?
A. Applying an N95 respirator upon room entry
B. Performing hand hygiene with soap and water before and after removing gloves [CORRECT]
C. Donning a gown after touching the client's bed rail
D. Removing gloves before performing hand hygiene at the room exit
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: C. difficile spores are resistant to alcohol-based hand sanitizers; soap and water is required.
Hand hygiene must occur before and after glove removal to prevent transmission.
Q2: A nurse is preparing to insert a urinary catheter using sterile technique. The nurse accidentally
touches the sterile catheter tip with an ungloved hand. What is the appropriate action?
A. Wipe the tip with an alcohol swab and continue
B. Discard the catheter and obtain a new sterile kit [CORRECT]
C. Apply sterile gloves over the ungloved hand and continue
D. Rinse the catheter tip with sterile saline
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Once a sterile item is contaminated by contact with a non-sterile object, it must be discarded;
sterility cannot be restored by cleaning or covering.
,Q3: A client with tuberculosis is being admitted to the unit. Which type of transmission-based
precautions is required?
A. Droplet precautions
B. Contact precautions
C. Airborne precautions [CORRECT]
D. Protective environment
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tuberculosis is transmitted via airborne droplet nuclei smaller than 5 microns, requiring
airborne precautions with an N95 respirator and negative-pressure room.
Q4: A nurse is applying wrist restraints to an agitated client. Which action is required by law and safety
standards?
A. Securing the restraints to the bed rail for quick release
B. Checking circulation every 30 minutes and documenting [CORRECT]
C. Applying restraints in the prone position to prevent self-injury
D. Ordering restraints independently without a provider's order
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Restraint application requires a provider's order within 1 hour, and neurovascular checks
must be performed and documented at least every 30 minutes to prevent injury.
Q5: A fire breaks out in a client's room. The nurse remembers the acronym RACE. What does the "E"
represent?
A. Extinguish
B. Evacuate [CORRECT]
C. Evaluate
D. Escape
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: RACE stands for Rescue/Remove, Alarm/Activate, Confine/Contain, and Extinguish/Evacuate;
"E" represents Evacuate when the fire cannot be safely extinguished.
,Q6: A nurse is preparing to administer a high-alert medication (heparin). Which safety action is most
appropriate?
A. Having another nurse independently verify the dose and concentration [CORRECT]
B. Administering the dose quickly to prevent clotting
C. Skipping the double-check if the nurse is experienced
D. Using the same syringe for the bolus and infusion
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: High-alert medications require independent double-check by two nurses to prevent errors;
heparin is an anticoagulant where dosing errors can cause hemorrhage or thrombosis.
Q7: A client with a seizure disorder is admitted. Which environmental modification is the priority?
A. Placing the bed in the highest position for easy access
B. Padding the side rails and keeping suction equipment at the bedside [CORRECT]
C. Restraining the client to prevent injury during seizures
D. Turning off the room lights to prevent photic stimulation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Seizure precautions include padded side rails, oxygen and suction at the bedside, and bed in
low position; restraints are contraindicated as they can cause injury during seizure activity.
Q8: A nurse is using the PASS technique with a fire extinguisher. What does the "A" represent?
A. Aim at the top of the flames
B. Aim at the base of the fire [CORRECT]
C. Aim at the ceiling to disperse the chemical
D. Aim at the nearest exit
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: PASS stands for Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep; aiming at the base of the fire (not the flames)
extinguishes the fuel source effectively.
Q9: A nurse is caring for a client with a latex allergy. Which intervention is essential?
A. Using latex gloves because they provide the best barrier
, B. Removing all latex-containing products from the client's environment [CORRECT]
C. Administering prophylactic antibiotics
D. Applying topical corticosteroids to the hands routinely
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Latex allergy management requires a latex-free environment; even airborne latex particles
from powdered gloves can trigger severe allergic reactions in sensitized individuals.
Q10: A nurse discovers a medication error after administration. What is the first action?
A. Complete an incident report before telling anyone
B. Assess the client and notify the provider immediately [CORRECT]
C. Wait to see if the client develops symptoms
D. Ask the pharmacy to change the record
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Client safety is the priority; the nurse must assess the client for adverse effects and notify the
provider immediately to initiate appropriate interventions.
Q11: A client is on droplet precautions for influenza. Which PPE is required for the nurse entering the
room?
A. N95 respirator and gown
B. Surgical mask and gloves [CORRECT]
C. Gown and gloves only
D. Full face shield and double gloves
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Droplet precautions require a surgical mask within 3 feet of the client and gloves for contact
with respiratory secretions; N95 is reserved for airborne pathogens.
Q12: A nurse is setting up a sterile field. Which action contaminates the field?
A. Placing sterile items on the sterile drape within the 1-inch border
B. Reaching over the sterile field rather than around it [CORRECT]
C. Keeping the sterile field below waist level
EXAM 2026/2027 | 160+ Q&A with
Rationales | Verified Q&A | Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Section 1: Safety & Infection Control (Questions 1–20)
Q1: A nurse enters the room of a client on contact precautions for Clostridioides difficile. Which action
demonstrates correct technique?
A. Applying an N95 respirator upon room entry
B. Performing hand hygiene with soap and water before and after removing gloves [CORRECT]
C. Donning a gown after touching the client's bed rail
D. Removing gloves before performing hand hygiene at the room exit
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: C. difficile spores are resistant to alcohol-based hand sanitizers; soap and water is required.
Hand hygiene must occur before and after glove removal to prevent transmission.
Q2: A nurse is preparing to insert a urinary catheter using sterile technique. The nurse accidentally
touches the sterile catheter tip with an ungloved hand. What is the appropriate action?
A. Wipe the tip with an alcohol swab and continue
B. Discard the catheter and obtain a new sterile kit [CORRECT]
C. Apply sterile gloves over the ungloved hand and continue
D. Rinse the catheter tip with sterile saline
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Once a sterile item is contaminated by contact with a non-sterile object, it must be discarded;
sterility cannot be restored by cleaning or covering.
,Q3: A client with tuberculosis is being admitted to the unit. Which type of transmission-based
precautions is required?
A. Droplet precautions
B. Contact precautions
C. Airborne precautions [CORRECT]
D. Protective environment
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tuberculosis is transmitted via airborne droplet nuclei smaller than 5 microns, requiring
airborne precautions with an N95 respirator and negative-pressure room.
Q4: A nurse is applying wrist restraints to an agitated client. Which action is required by law and safety
standards?
A. Securing the restraints to the bed rail for quick release
B. Checking circulation every 30 minutes and documenting [CORRECT]
C. Applying restraints in the prone position to prevent self-injury
D. Ordering restraints independently without a provider's order
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Restraint application requires a provider's order within 1 hour, and neurovascular checks
must be performed and documented at least every 30 minutes to prevent injury.
Q5: A fire breaks out in a client's room. The nurse remembers the acronym RACE. What does the "E"
represent?
A. Extinguish
B. Evacuate [CORRECT]
C. Evaluate
D. Escape
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: RACE stands for Rescue/Remove, Alarm/Activate, Confine/Contain, and Extinguish/Evacuate;
"E" represents Evacuate when the fire cannot be safely extinguished.
,Q6: A nurse is preparing to administer a high-alert medication (heparin). Which safety action is most
appropriate?
A. Having another nurse independently verify the dose and concentration [CORRECT]
B. Administering the dose quickly to prevent clotting
C. Skipping the double-check if the nurse is experienced
D. Using the same syringe for the bolus and infusion
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: High-alert medications require independent double-check by two nurses to prevent errors;
heparin is an anticoagulant where dosing errors can cause hemorrhage or thrombosis.
Q7: A client with a seizure disorder is admitted. Which environmental modification is the priority?
A. Placing the bed in the highest position for easy access
B. Padding the side rails and keeping suction equipment at the bedside [CORRECT]
C. Restraining the client to prevent injury during seizures
D. Turning off the room lights to prevent photic stimulation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Seizure precautions include padded side rails, oxygen and suction at the bedside, and bed in
low position; restraints are contraindicated as they can cause injury during seizure activity.
Q8: A nurse is using the PASS technique with a fire extinguisher. What does the "A" represent?
A. Aim at the top of the flames
B. Aim at the base of the fire [CORRECT]
C. Aim at the ceiling to disperse the chemical
D. Aim at the nearest exit
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: PASS stands for Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep; aiming at the base of the fire (not the flames)
extinguishes the fuel source effectively.
Q9: A nurse is caring for a client with a latex allergy. Which intervention is essential?
A. Using latex gloves because they provide the best barrier
, B. Removing all latex-containing products from the client's environment [CORRECT]
C. Administering prophylactic antibiotics
D. Applying topical corticosteroids to the hands routinely
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Latex allergy management requires a latex-free environment; even airborne latex particles
from powdered gloves can trigger severe allergic reactions in sensitized individuals.
Q10: A nurse discovers a medication error after administration. What is the first action?
A. Complete an incident report before telling anyone
B. Assess the client and notify the provider immediately [CORRECT]
C. Wait to see if the client develops symptoms
D. Ask the pharmacy to change the record
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Client safety is the priority; the nurse must assess the client for adverse effects and notify the
provider immediately to initiate appropriate interventions.
Q11: A client is on droplet precautions for influenza. Which PPE is required for the nurse entering the
room?
A. N95 respirator and gown
B. Surgical mask and gloves [CORRECT]
C. Gown and gloves only
D. Full face shield and double gloves
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Droplet precautions require a surgical mask within 3 feet of the client and gloves for contact
with respiratory secretions; N95 is reserved for airborne pathogens.
Q12: A nurse is setting up a sterile field. Which action contaminates the field?
A. Placing sterile items on the sterile drape within the 1-inch border
B. Reaching over the sterile field rather than around it [CORRECT]
C. Keeping the sterile field below waist level
