PRN 1381 Pharmacology Final Exam Review
Which receptor does albuterol primarily act on?
A. Beta‑1 adrenergic
B. Beta‑2 adrenergic
C. Alpha‑1 adrenergic
D. Muscarinic
Rationale: Albuterol selectively stimulates beta‑2 receptors in bronchial smooth muscle,
causing bronchodilation.
What is the antidote for opioid overdose?
A. Flumazenil
B. Naloxone
C. Atropine
D. Protamine sulfate
Rationale: Naloxone competitively antagonizes opioid receptors, reversing respiratory
depression.
Which antibiotic class is associated with tendon rupture?
A. Macrolides
B. Fluoroquinolones
C. Aminoglycosides
D. Cephalosporins
Rationale: Fluoroquinolones impair collagen synthesis, increasing risk of tendon injury.
Why is warfarin therapy monitored with INR?
A. To assess platelet count
B. To measure clotting factor activity
C. To evaluate renal clearance
D. To monitor liver enzymes
Rationale: INR reflects warfarin’s inhibition of vitamin K‑dependent clotting factors,
guiding safe dosing.
Which adverse effect is most common with ACE inhibitors?
A. Constipation
B. Dry cough
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Bradycardia
Rationale: ACE inhibitors increase bradykinin levels, leading to persistent cough in
many patients.
Which drug is first‑line for status epilepticus?
A. Diazepam
B. Phenytoin
C. Carbamazepine
, D. Valproic acid
Rationale: Diazepam rapidly enhances GABA activity, stopping seizures quickly.
Which insulin type has the fastest onset?
A. Regular insulin
B. NPH insulin
C. Lispro insulin
D. Glargine insulin
Rationale: Lispro is a rapid‑acting insulin analog with onset in 15 minutes.
What is the mechanism of omeprazole?
A. H2 receptor blockade
B. Proton pump inhibition
C. Antacid neutralization
D. Gastrin suppression
Rationale: Omeprazole irreversibly inhibits gastric H+/K+ ATPase, reducing acid
secretion.
Which drug is contraindicated in asthma?
A. Atenolol
B. Propranolol
C. Metoprolol
D. Bisoprolol
Rationale: Non‑selective beta blockers like propranolol can cause bronchoconstriction.
Which vitamin deficiency is caused by isoniazid?
A. Vitamin B6
B. Vitamin B12
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D
Rationale: Isoniazid interferes with pyridoxine metabolism, leading to neuropathy.
Which drug is used to treat malignant hyperthermia?
A. Dantrolene
B. Diazepam
C. Succinylcholine
D. Haloperidol
Rationale: Dantrolene reduces calcium release from sarcoplasmic reticulum, reversing
hyperthermia.
Which opioid causes miosis?
A. Morphine
B. Meperidine
C. Fentanyl
D. Codeine
Rationale: Morphine stimulates parasympathetic pathways, producing pinpoint pupils.
Which receptor does albuterol primarily act on?
A. Beta‑1 adrenergic
B. Beta‑2 adrenergic
C. Alpha‑1 adrenergic
D. Muscarinic
Rationale: Albuterol selectively stimulates beta‑2 receptors in bronchial smooth muscle,
causing bronchodilation.
What is the antidote for opioid overdose?
A. Flumazenil
B. Naloxone
C. Atropine
D. Protamine sulfate
Rationale: Naloxone competitively antagonizes opioid receptors, reversing respiratory
depression.
Which antibiotic class is associated with tendon rupture?
A. Macrolides
B. Fluoroquinolones
C. Aminoglycosides
D. Cephalosporins
Rationale: Fluoroquinolones impair collagen synthesis, increasing risk of tendon injury.
Why is warfarin therapy monitored with INR?
A. To assess platelet count
B. To measure clotting factor activity
C. To evaluate renal clearance
D. To monitor liver enzymes
Rationale: INR reflects warfarin’s inhibition of vitamin K‑dependent clotting factors,
guiding safe dosing.
Which adverse effect is most common with ACE inhibitors?
A. Constipation
B. Dry cough
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Bradycardia
Rationale: ACE inhibitors increase bradykinin levels, leading to persistent cough in
many patients.
Which drug is first‑line for status epilepticus?
A. Diazepam
B. Phenytoin
C. Carbamazepine
, D. Valproic acid
Rationale: Diazepam rapidly enhances GABA activity, stopping seizures quickly.
Which insulin type has the fastest onset?
A. Regular insulin
B. NPH insulin
C. Lispro insulin
D. Glargine insulin
Rationale: Lispro is a rapid‑acting insulin analog with onset in 15 minutes.
What is the mechanism of omeprazole?
A. H2 receptor blockade
B. Proton pump inhibition
C. Antacid neutralization
D. Gastrin suppression
Rationale: Omeprazole irreversibly inhibits gastric H+/K+ ATPase, reducing acid
secretion.
Which drug is contraindicated in asthma?
A. Atenolol
B. Propranolol
C. Metoprolol
D. Bisoprolol
Rationale: Non‑selective beta blockers like propranolol can cause bronchoconstriction.
Which vitamin deficiency is caused by isoniazid?
A. Vitamin B6
B. Vitamin B12
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D
Rationale: Isoniazid interferes with pyridoxine metabolism, leading to neuropathy.
Which drug is used to treat malignant hyperthermia?
A. Dantrolene
B. Diazepam
C. Succinylcholine
D. Haloperidol
Rationale: Dantrolene reduces calcium release from sarcoplasmic reticulum, reversing
hyperthermia.
Which opioid causes miosis?
A. Morphine
B. Meperidine
C. Fentanyl
D. Codeine
Rationale: Morphine stimulates parasympathetic pathways, producing pinpoint pupils.
