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INRAT AIR LAW EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

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INRAT AIR LAW EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

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INRAT AIR LAW EXAM QUESTIONS
AND ANSWERS

When on a defense flight plan, an FSS or CARs must be notified if the position of entry/
exit from an ADIZ changes by more than ___ or the time of entry/ exit to/from the ADIZ
changes by more than ___.
a) +/- 20NM, 5 min
b) +/- 10NM, 10 min
c) +/- 20NM, 10 min
d) +/- 10NM, 5 min - Answer- a) +/- 20NM, 5 min

When ATC advises a pilot that he/she is "radar identified", who is responsible for
obstacle clearance?
a) PIC
b) ATC
c) Both PIC and ATC
d) ATC is responsible for terrain clearance but once cleared for an approach then it's
the PIC's responsibility. - Answer- a) PIC

What will ATC always provide when operating IFR within controlled airspace?
a) Traffic separation
b) Terrain clearance
c) When being radar vectored, ATC provides separation however obstacle clearance is
the PICs responsibility
d) Always provides terrain clearance and traffic separation. - Answer- a) Traffic
separation

When is an ATC clearance or instruction valid?
a) An ATC clearance or instruction is valid after it has been acknowledged by the crew
of an aircraft that is operating in uncontrolled airspace
b) An ATC clearance or instruction is valid for aircraft which are operating within
controlled airspace
c) An ATC clearance or instruction is valid for any aircraft that is operating in both
controlled and uncontrolled airspace
d) An ATC clearance or instruction is valid for aircrafts which are operating outside of
controlled airspace - Answer- b) An ATC clearance or instruction is valid for aircraft
which are operating within controlled airspace

Which of the following statements with regards to T-routes is false?

,a) T-routes are low level controlled fixed RNAV routes depicted on LO charts.
b) The primary obstacle protection area provides at least 1000ft of clearance above the
highest obstacle within 10NM on either side of the route centerline
c) The secondary obstacle protection area provides an additional 2NM of protection on
either side of the route centerline
d) RNAV t-route airspace and protection areas do not splay - Answer- b) The primary
obstacle protection area provides at least 1000ft of clearance above the highest
obstacle within 10NM on either side of the route centerline


How many hours of PIC cross country time is required to conduct the IFR flight test? -
Answer- 50 hours XC PIC time.

Requirements:
1. 40 hours of instrument time
2. 50 hours XC PIC time
3. A dual xc of at least 100NM under simulated or actual IFR conditions
4. Completion of INRAT and FT.

When an IFR flight test was conducted on a center-line thrust multi-engine aeroplane,
one will obtain a group ___ rating.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3 - Answer- Group 2

Group 1: (All aeroplanes) when the ft was conducted in a mulit-eninge aeroplane other
than a centre-thrust multi-engine aeroplane

Group 2: (All centre-line thrust multi-engine and single-engine aeroplanes) when the ft
was conducted in a centre-line thrust multi-engine aeroplane

Group 3: (All single engine aeroplanes) when the ft was conducted in a single-engine
aeroplane.

An instrument rating is valid for: - Answer- 24 months.

Flight Test:
- An instrument rating is valid for 24 months from the flight test date.

12 Months Later:
- 12 months following a flight test, the 6 month rule becomes active.

6 Months Later (18 Months):
- Within 6 months, a pilot must log at least 6 hours of instrument time and complete 6
instrument approaches to CAP minimums (6/6/6 rule)
- Every six months thereafter, the pilot must complete the 6/6/6 rule as noted above.

, How many light units does an AV type VASIS consist of and what indication would be
displayed if the correct slope was followed? - Answer- It has two lights stacked
vertically.

On approach slope:
Top light = red
Bottom light = white

Following the on-slope signal of a VASIS lighting system, obstacle protection is
guaranteed to a minimum of ___ degrees on either side of the runway center line.
a) 3 degrees
b) 5 degrees
c) 6 degrees
d) 9 degrees - Answer- c) 6 degrees

What is the maximum eye-to-wheel height for an aircraft to rely on a V2 VASIS? -
Answer- 0ft ft < EWH < 25ft (7.5m)

VASIS EWH:
AV: 0ft < EWH < 10ft (3m)
V1: 0ft < EWH < 10ft (3m)
V2: 0ft < EWH < 25 ft (7.5m)

Eye to Wheel Height: This is the vertical distance from the pilots eyes to the lowest
portion of the aircraft in the landing configuration.

What is eye-to-wheel height (EWH)? - Answer- Eye to Wheel Height: This is the vertical
distance from the pilots eyes to the lowest portion of the aircraft in the landing
configuration.

It provides a safe wheel clearance over the threshold when the pilot is receiving on-
slope indication.

Following the on-slope signal of a VASIS lighting system, obstacle protection is
guaranteed to a minimum of ___ degrees on either side of the runway centreline out to
___ NM from the runway threshold. - Answer- 6-9 degrees on either side of the
extended runway centreline out to 4.1NM from the runway threshold.

What is the correct procedure when transitioning from the Altimeter Setting Region to
the Standard Pressure Region while cruising at 8000ft ASL? - Answer- slide 5

A WestJet Boeing 737-800 aircraft has a flight plan from CYYC (elev: 3600ft.) to CYVR
at FL360. Which of the following procedures is correct?
a) The pilot would set the altimeter to 29.92"Hg prior to levelling off at FL360
b) The pilot would set the altimeter to 29.92"Hg prior to passing through FL180

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