NURS 101L Fundamentals of Nursing Skills Lab - Week 13 Quiz 2026
|WCU
1. When performing nasopharyngeal suctioning, what is the maximum duration
for each suction pass to prevent hypoxia?
A. 5 seconds
B. 10 to 15 seconds
C. 20 to 30 seconds
D. 60 seconds
Answer: B
Rationale: Suctioning should be limited to 10-15 seconds to prevent significant decrease in
arterial oxygen saturation; longer periods can cause hypoxemia and vagal stimulation.
2. A nurse is preparing to insert an indwelling urinary catheter in a female
patient. Which position is most appropriate?
A. Sims position
B. Prone position
C. High-Fowler’s position
D. Dorsal recumbent position
Answer: D
Rationale: The dorsal recumbent position (on back with knees flexed) allows for optimal
visualization of the perineal area and urethral meatus for catheter insertion.
,3. While suctioning a patient with a tracheostomy, the nurse notes a sudden
drop in heart rate and oxygen saturation. What is the priority action?
A. Complete the suctioning pass as quickly as possible
B. Increase the suction pressure to 150 mmHg
C. Immediately stop suctioning and hyperoxygenate the patient
D. Notify the provider immediately before taking any further steps
Answer: C
Rationale: Safety is the priority. If the patient shows signs of distress (bradycardia or
desaturation), suctioning must stop, and the patient must be hyperoxygenated with 100%
oxygen.
4. Which flow rate is typical for a patient receiving oxygen via a simple face
mask?
A. 6-12 L/min
B. 1-2 L/min
C. 15-20 L/min
D. 2-4 L/min
Answer: A
Rationale: Simple face masks are used for short-term oxygen therapy at flow rates of 6 to
12 L/min. Flow rates below 5-6 L/min can lead to CO2 rebreathing.
5. When performing sterile wound irrigation, in which direction should the
nurse direct the flow of solution?
A. From the bottom of the wound to the top
B. From the most contaminated area to the least contaminated
C. From the least contaminated area to the most contaminated
D. Circular motion starting from the outer edges inward
Answer: C
, Rationale: Cleaning from the least contaminated (usually the center or top of the wound)
to the most contaminated area (the surrounding skin or lower part) prevents the spread of
microorganisms into the wound.
6. A nurse is assessing a patient’s peripheral IV site and notes coolness, pallor,
and swelling. Which complication is most likely?
A. Phlebitis
B. Extravasation
C. Infiltration
D. Thrombophlebitis
Answer: C
Rationale: Infiltration is characterized by the leakage of non-vesicant fluid into tissues,
resulting in coolness, edema, and pallor. Phlebitis would involve warmth and redness.
7. What is the first step a nurse should take after noticing a patient’s pulse
oximetry reading has dropped from 94% to 88%?
A. Call the rapid response team
B. Increase the oxygen flow rate by 2 L/min
C. Document the finding as an expected change
D. Assess the patient’s respiratory status and check the probe placement
Answer: D
Rationale: The first nursing action is assessment. The nurse must verify if the patient is in
true respiratory distress or if the equipment (probe placement) is faulty before
intervening.
|WCU
1. When performing nasopharyngeal suctioning, what is the maximum duration
for each suction pass to prevent hypoxia?
A. 5 seconds
B. 10 to 15 seconds
C. 20 to 30 seconds
D. 60 seconds
Answer: B
Rationale: Suctioning should be limited to 10-15 seconds to prevent significant decrease in
arterial oxygen saturation; longer periods can cause hypoxemia and vagal stimulation.
2. A nurse is preparing to insert an indwelling urinary catheter in a female
patient. Which position is most appropriate?
A. Sims position
B. Prone position
C. High-Fowler’s position
D. Dorsal recumbent position
Answer: D
Rationale: The dorsal recumbent position (on back with knees flexed) allows for optimal
visualization of the perineal area and urethral meatus for catheter insertion.
,3. While suctioning a patient with a tracheostomy, the nurse notes a sudden
drop in heart rate and oxygen saturation. What is the priority action?
A. Complete the suctioning pass as quickly as possible
B. Increase the suction pressure to 150 mmHg
C. Immediately stop suctioning and hyperoxygenate the patient
D. Notify the provider immediately before taking any further steps
Answer: C
Rationale: Safety is the priority. If the patient shows signs of distress (bradycardia or
desaturation), suctioning must stop, and the patient must be hyperoxygenated with 100%
oxygen.
4. Which flow rate is typical for a patient receiving oxygen via a simple face
mask?
A. 6-12 L/min
B. 1-2 L/min
C. 15-20 L/min
D. 2-4 L/min
Answer: A
Rationale: Simple face masks are used for short-term oxygen therapy at flow rates of 6 to
12 L/min. Flow rates below 5-6 L/min can lead to CO2 rebreathing.
5. When performing sterile wound irrigation, in which direction should the
nurse direct the flow of solution?
A. From the bottom of the wound to the top
B. From the most contaminated area to the least contaminated
C. From the least contaminated area to the most contaminated
D. Circular motion starting from the outer edges inward
Answer: C
, Rationale: Cleaning from the least contaminated (usually the center or top of the wound)
to the most contaminated area (the surrounding skin or lower part) prevents the spread of
microorganisms into the wound.
6. A nurse is assessing a patient’s peripheral IV site and notes coolness, pallor,
and swelling. Which complication is most likely?
A. Phlebitis
B. Extravasation
C. Infiltration
D. Thrombophlebitis
Answer: C
Rationale: Infiltration is characterized by the leakage of non-vesicant fluid into tissues,
resulting in coolness, edema, and pallor. Phlebitis would involve warmth and redness.
7. What is the first step a nurse should take after noticing a patient’s pulse
oximetry reading has dropped from 94% to 88%?
A. Call the rapid response team
B. Increase the oxygen flow rate by 2 L/min
C. Document the finding as an expected change
D. Assess the patient’s respiratory status and check the probe placement
Answer: D
Rationale: The first nursing action is assessment. The nurse must verify if the patient is in
true respiratory distress or if the equipment (probe placement) is faulty before
intervening.
