NURS 121L-B Medical-Surgical Nursing Practicum - Week 2
Comprehensive Quiz 2026 |WCU
1. A nurse is preparing a client for surgery. Which of the following tasks is the
primary responsibility of the nurse regarding informed consent?
A. Witnessing the client’s signature on the consent form
B. Describing alternative treatments to the patient
C. Explaining the risks and benefits of the procedure
D. Answering specific questions about the surgical technique
Answer: A
Rationale: The nurse’s role is to witness the signature and ensure the client is competent;
the surgeon is responsible for explaining the procedure, risks, and alternatives.
2. A patient is 12 hours postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which
assessment finding should the nurse report to the provider immediately?
A. Absent bowel sounds in all four quadrants
B. Serosanguineous drainage on the dressing
C. Pain level of 6 on a 1-10 scale
D. Urine output of 20 mL/hr for the last two hours
Answer: D
Rationale: Urine output less than 30 mL/hr can indicate hypovolemia or renal failure and
requires immediate intervention.
,3. A client is diagnosed with hypokalemia. Which of the following ECG changes
should the nurse expect to observe?
A. Tall, peaked T waves
B. Prominent U waves
C. Widened QRS complexes
D. Shortened QT interval
Answer: B
Rationale: Hypokalemia typically presents with ST depression, flattened T waves, and the
appearance of U waves.
4. While performing a sterile dressing change, the nurse notices the edge of the
sterile field is touching the client’s bedside table. What is the appropriate
action?
A. Discard the entire sterile field and start over
B. Continue the procedure if the table was cleaned with alcohol
C. Consider only the 1-inch border of the field contaminated
D. Use the center of the field and avoid the edges
Answer: A
Rationale: If a sterile field touches a non-sterile surface, it is considered contaminated and
must be replaced entirely to maintain surgical asepsis.
5. A nurse is monitoring a client receiving a blood transfusion. The client
suddenly develops tachycardia, tachypnea, and low back pain. What is the
priority action?
A. Slow the infusion rate
B. Notify the blood bank
C. Stop the infusion immediately
D. Administer diphenhydramine
Answer: C
, Rationale: Back pain and tachycardia suggest a hemolytic reaction; the infusion must be
stopped immediately to prevent further damage.
6. A client has a prescription for 1,000 mL of 0.9% Sodium Chloride to infuse
over 8 hours. The drop factor is 15 gtt/mL. At what rate should the nurse set the
manual IV drip?
A. 21 gtt/min
B. 42 gtt/min
C. 31 gtt/min
D. 125 gtt/min
Answer: C
Rationale: (1000 mL * 15 gtt) / (8 hours * 60 min) = = 31.25, rounded to 31
gtt/min.
7. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 days postoperative. Which of the
following findings most likely indicates a pulmonary embolism?
A. Sudden onset of dyspnea and chest pain
B. Increased productive cough with yellow sputum
C. Unilateral calf swelling and redness
D. Bilateral crackles at the lung bases
Answer: A
Rationale: Sudden dyspnea, tachypnea, and chest pain are classic hallmarks of a
pulmonary embolism, a life-threatening postoperative complication.
Comprehensive Quiz 2026 |WCU
1. A nurse is preparing a client for surgery. Which of the following tasks is the
primary responsibility of the nurse regarding informed consent?
A. Witnessing the client’s signature on the consent form
B. Describing alternative treatments to the patient
C. Explaining the risks and benefits of the procedure
D. Answering specific questions about the surgical technique
Answer: A
Rationale: The nurse’s role is to witness the signature and ensure the client is competent;
the surgeon is responsible for explaining the procedure, risks, and alternatives.
2. A patient is 12 hours postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which
assessment finding should the nurse report to the provider immediately?
A. Absent bowel sounds in all four quadrants
B. Serosanguineous drainage on the dressing
C. Pain level of 6 on a 1-10 scale
D. Urine output of 20 mL/hr for the last two hours
Answer: D
Rationale: Urine output less than 30 mL/hr can indicate hypovolemia or renal failure and
requires immediate intervention.
,3. A client is diagnosed with hypokalemia. Which of the following ECG changes
should the nurse expect to observe?
A. Tall, peaked T waves
B. Prominent U waves
C. Widened QRS complexes
D. Shortened QT interval
Answer: B
Rationale: Hypokalemia typically presents with ST depression, flattened T waves, and the
appearance of U waves.
4. While performing a sterile dressing change, the nurse notices the edge of the
sterile field is touching the client’s bedside table. What is the appropriate
action?
A. Discard the entire sterile field and start over
B. Continue the procedure if the table was cleaned with alcohol
C. Consider only the 1-inch border of the field contaminated
D. Use the center of the field and avoid the edges
Answer: A
Rationale: If a sterile field touches a non-sterile surface, it is considered contaminated and
must be replaced entirely to maintain surgical asepsis.
5. A nurse is monitoring a client receiving a blood transfusion. The client
suddenly develops tachycardia, tachypnea, and low back pain. What is the
priority action?
A. Slow the infusion rate
B. Notify the blood bank
C. Stop the infusion immediately
D. Administer diphenhydramine
Answer: C
, Rationale: Back pain and tachycardia suggest a hemolytic reaction; the infusion must be
stopped immediately to prevent further damage.
6. A client has a prescription for 1,000 mL of 0.9% Sodium Chloride to infuse
over 8 hours. The drop factor is 15 gtt/mL. At what rate should the nurse set the
manual IV drip?
A. 21 gtt/min
B. 42 gtt/min
C. 31 gtt/min
D. 125 gtt/min
Answer: C
Rationale: (1000 mL * 15 gtt) / (8 hours * 60 min) = = 31.25, rounded to 31
gtt/min.
7. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 days postoperative. Which of the
following findings most likely indicates a pulmonary embolism?
A. Sudden onset of dyspnea and chest pain
B. Increased productive cough with yellow sputum
C. Unilateral calf swelling and redness
D. Bilateral crackles at the lung bases
Answer: A
Rationale: Sudden dyspnea, tachypnea, and chest pain are classic hallmarks of a
pulmonary embolism, a life-threatening postoperative complication.
