ATI MATERNAL NEWBORN
PROCTORED EXAM 2026 –
ACTUAL EXAM|||questions and
answers with rationales/graded
A+/2026 update/100% correct /instant
download
Total Questions: 85
Time Limit: 2 hours
Instructions: Choose the best answer. Highlighted bold options are correct.
Section 1: Antepartum – Prenatal Care & Complications
1. A nurse is assessing a client at 12 weeks gestation. Which finding requires
immediate intervention?
A. Heart rate 90 bpm
B. Blood pressure 140/90 mm Hg
C. Serum hemoglobin 11 g/dL
D. Urine dipstick glucose 1+
Correct Answer: B – BP 140/90 mm Hg
*Rationale: BP ≥140/90 at <20 weeks suggests chronic hypertension or early
preeclampsia. Hemoglobin 11 is normal in pregnancy; mild tachycardia and trace
glucose are common.*
2. A pregnant client with blood type O negative is at 28 weeks gestation. The
nurse should anticipate administering:
A. Rh immune globulin at 28 weeks and within 72 hours after birth if newborn is
Rh positive
B. Rh immune globulin only after delivery
C. Rh immune globulin at 12 weeks
D. No Rh immune globulin if partner is O negative
,Correct Answer: A
*Rationale: Rh-negative mothers receive RhIg at 28 weeks to prevent sensitization
and again postpartum if the baby is Rh positive.*
3. A nurse is teaching a client about signs of preterm labor. Which statement
indicates understanding?
A. "I should lie on my back if I feel contractions."
B. "Menstrual-like cramping is a normal discomfort."
C. "Increased vaginal discharge that is watery or bloody needs evaluation."
D. "I should wait until contractions are 5 minutes apart before calling."
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Preterm labor signs include pelvic pressure, low backache, menstrual-
like cramps, and increased watery/pink discharge. Immediate evaluation required.
4. A client with gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) at 34 weeks has a fasting
blood glucose of 105 mg/dL. The nurse should:
A. Encourage a carbohydrate-rich snack
B. Notify the provider for insulin adjustment
C. Document as normal finding
D. Increase oral fluids
Correct Answer: B
*Rationale: Fasting glucose <95 mg/dL is target in GDM. 105 mg/dL indicates
poor control; requires medication adjustment.*
5. Magnesium sulfate is administered to a preeclamptic client. The nurse
should prioritize assessing:
A. Deep tendon reflexes and respiratory rate
B. Blood glucose level
C. Fetal heart rate variability
D. Urine output hourly
Correct Answer: A
*Rationale: Magnesium toxicity causes hyporeflexia, respiratory depression
(<12/min), and cardiac arrest. Reflexes and respirations are key.*
6. A nurse performs a nonstress test (NST) at 36 weeks. A reactive result
requires:
A. Two accelerations of 15 bpm for 15 seconds in 20 minutes
B. Decelerations following contractions
, C. Baseline variability <5 bpm
D. Fetal movement counting
Correct Answer: A
*Rationale: Reactive NST = ≥2 accelerations in 20 min; indicates fetal well-
being.*
7. A client at 39 weeks reports a gush of fluid followed by continuous leaking.
The nurse confirms rupture of membranes. Next action?
A. Perform a sterile speculum exam
B. Assess fetal heart rate
C. Administer oxytocin
D. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: After ROM, priority is assessing fetal heart rate to rule out cord
prolapse or distress.
8. Which finding in a 24-week gestation client is most indicative of placental
abruption?
A. Painless bright red bleeding
B. Board-like abdomen with dark red bleeding
C. Intermittent contractions every 10 minutes
D. Hyperemesis gravidarum
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Abruptio placentae presents with sudden, severe abdominal pain,
uterine rigidity, and dark bleeding (concealed or external).
9. A client with hyperemesis gravidarum has ketones in urine. The nurse
recognizes this indicates:
A. Early signs of preeclampsia
B. Breakdown of fat for energy
C. Normal pregnancy adaptation
D. Urinary tract infection
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ketones result from starvation and fat metabolism due to inadequate
carbohydrate intake; requires IV fluids and antiemetics.
PROCTORED EXAM 2026 –
ACTUAL EXAM|||questions and
answers with rationales/graded
A+/2026 update/100% correct /instant
download
Total Questions: 85
Time Limit: 2 hours
Instructions: Choose the best answer. Highlighted bold options are correct.
Section 1: Antepartum – Prenatal Care & Complications
1. A nurse is assessing a client at 12 weeks gestation. Which finding requires
immediate intervention?
A. Heart rate 90 bpm
B. Blood pressure 140/90 mm Hg
C. Serum hemoglobin 11 g/dL
D. Urine dipstick glucose 1+
Correct Answer: B – BP 140/90 mm Hg
*Rationale: BP ≥140/90 at <20 weeks suggests chronic hypertension or early
preeclampsia. Hemoglobin 11 is normal in pregnancy; mild tachycardia and trace
glucose are common.*
2. A pregnant client with blood type O negative is at 28 weeks gestation. The
nurse should anticipate administering:
A. Rh immune globulin at 28 weeks and within 72 hours after birth if newborn is
Rh positive
B. Rh immune globulin only after delivery
C. Rh immune globulin at 12 weeks
D. No Rh immune globulin if partner is O negative
,Correct Answer: A
*Rationale: Rh-negative mothers receive RhIg at 28 weeks to prevent sensitization
and again postpartum if the baby is Rh positive.*
3. A nurse is teaching a client about signs of preterm labor. Which statement
indicates understanding?
A. "I should lie on my back if I feel contractions."
B. "Menstrual-like cramping is a normal discomfort."
C. "Increased vaginal discharge that is watery or bloody needs evaluation."
D. "I should wait until contractions are 5 minutes apart before calling."
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Preterm labor signs include pelvic pressure, low backache, menstrual-
like cramps, and increased watery/pink discharge. Immediate evaluation required.
4. A client with gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) at 34 weeks has a fasting
blood glucose of 105 mg/dL. The nurse should:
A. Encourage a carbohydrate-rich snack
B. Notify the provider for insulin adjustment
C. Document as normal finding
D. Increase oral fluids
Correct Answer: B
*Rationale: Fasting glucose <95 mg/dL is target in GDM. 105 mg/dL indicates
poor control; requires medication adjustment.*
5. Magnesium sulfate is administered to a preeclamptic client. The nurse
should prioritize assessing:
A. Deep tendon reflexes and respiratory rate
B. Blood glucose level
C. Fetal heart rate variability
D. Urine output hourly
Correct Answer: A
*Rationale: Magnesium toxicity causes hyporeflexia, respiratory depression
(<12/min), and cardiac arrest. Reflexes and respirations are key.*
6. A nurse performs a nonstress test (NST) at 36 weeks. A reactive result
requires:
A. Two accelerations of 15 bpm for 15 seconds in 20 minutes
B. Decelerations following contractions
, C. Baseline variability <5 bpm
D. Fetal movement counting
Correct Answer: A
*Rationale: Reactive NST = ≥2 accelerations in 20 min; indicates fetal well-
being.*
7. A client at 39 weeks reports a gush of fluid followed by continuous leaking.
The nurse confirms rupture of membranes. Next action?
A. Perform a sterile speculum exam
B. Assess fetal heart rate
C. Administer oxytocin
D. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: After ROM, priority is assessing fetal heart rate to rule out cord
prolapse or distress.
8. Which finding in a 24-week gestation client is most indicative of placental
abruption?
A. Painless bright red bleeding
B. Board-like abdomen with dark red bleeding
C. Intermittent contractions every 10 minutes
D. Hyperemesis gravidarum
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Abruptio placentae presents with sudden, severe abdominal pain,
uterine rigidity, and dark bleeding (concealed or external).
9. A client with hyperemesis gravidarum has ketones in urine. The nurse
recognizes this indicates:
A. Early signs of preeclampsia
B. Breakdown of fat for energy
C. Normal pregnancy adaptation
D. Urinary tract infection
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ketones result from starvation and fat metabolism due to inadequate
carbohydrate intake; requires IV fluids and antiemetics.
