NUR 2063 / NUR2063: Essentials of Pathophysiology Exam 2
(Latest Updated) – Rasmussen 200 Practice Questions with
Verified Answers & Explanations
Question 1: Which of the following assessment findings indicates an alteration in homeostatic control
mechanisms?
a) Bradycardia
b) Fever
c) Hypertension
d) Tachypnea
Answer: b
Explanation: Fever indicates a change in the body's homeostatic set point, typically triggered by
pyrogens acting on the hypothalamus, resetting it to a higher temperature. The other options can be
physiologic responses but do not directly indicate a resetting of homeostatic mechanisms.
Question 2: Injury that occurs when blood flow is diminished to tissue is called:
a) Hypoxic injury
b) Ischemic injury
c) Necrotic injury
d) Apoptotic injury
Answer: b
Explanation: Ischemic injury specifically refers to tissue damage caused by reduced or interrupted blood
flow (ischemia), leading to decreased oxygen and nutrient delivery. It is distinct from hypoxic injury,
which refers to low oxygen alone.
Question 3: During acute inflammation, which cell arrives early in great numbers?
a) Basophils
b) Lymphocytes
c) Neutrophils
d) Monocytes
,Answer: c
Explanation: Neutrophils (PMNs) are the first leukocytes to arrive at the site of inflammation, typically
within 60-90 minutes. They are the primary phagocytes in acute inflammation. Monocytes arrive later
and mature into macrophages.
Question 4: The cancer growth continuum is divided into which of the following stages?
a) Induction, latency, maturity
b) Initiation, promotion, progression
c) Detection, diagnosis, treatment
d) Activation, inhibition, regression
Answer: b
Explanation: The cancer growth continuum consists of three stages: initiation (DNA damage), promotion
(cell proliferation of initiated cells), and progression (acquisition of malignant characteristics).
Question 5: A patient with long-standing hypertension develops left ventricular hypertrophy. What is
the primary pathophysiological mechanism behind this adaptation?
a) Decreased afterload leading to reduced myocardial workload
b) Increased pressure overload causing myocardial muscle thickening
c) Reduced preload causing ventricular dilation
d) Increased oxygen supply leading to muscle atrophy
Answer: b
Explanation: Chronic hypertension increases afterload, forcing the left ventricle to work harder against
increased resistance. This pressure overload results in myocardial thickening (hypertrophy) as an
adaptive mechanism.
Question 6: A patient with heart failure presents with fluid accumulation in the lungs. Which mechanism
is responsible for pulmonary edema in this condition?
a) Increased oncotic pressure in pulmonary capillaries
b) Decreased hydrostatic pressure in pulmonary circulation
c) Increased hydrostatic pressure due to left ventricular failure
d) Decreased capillary permeability
,Answer: c
Explanation: Left-sided heart failure causes blood backup into the pulmonary circulation, increasing
hydrostatic pressure in the pulmonary capillaries. This increased pressure pushes fluid into the alveoli,
causing pulmonary edema.
Question 7: A patient experiencing an acute asthma attack has difficulty exhaling air. What is the
underlying pathophysiology?
a) Alveolar collapse due to surfactant deficiency
b) Bronchial smooth muscle constriction and airway inflammation
c) Increased lung compliance
d) Reduced mucus production
Answer: b
Explanation: In asthma, bronchial smooth muscle constriction (bronchospasm) and airway inflammation
narrow the airways, particularly during expiration, making it difficult to exhale air. Reduced mucus
production is not part of asthma pathophysiology.
Question 8: In chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), what structural change contributes most
to impaired gas exchange?
a) Thickening of alveolar walls
b) Destruction of alveolar septa and reduced surface area
c) Increased surfactant production
d) Pulmonary artery vasodilation
Answer: b
Explanation: In COPD (particularly emphysema), destruction of alveolar septa reduces the surface area
available for gas exchange. This loss of alveolar-capillary membranes directly impairs oxygen and carbon
dioxide exchange.
Question 9: What are the primary functions of the kidneys? (Select all that apply)
a) Regulation of blood pressure
b) Regulation of blood osmolarity
c) Removal of toxins
d) Activate vitamin D
, Answer: a, b, c, d (All of the above)
Explanation: The kidneys regulate blood pressure (via RAAS), blood osmolarity (via water/electrolyte
balance), remove toxins (via filtration), and activate vitamin D (converting 25-OH vitamin D to its active
form).
Question 10: What substance controls the reabsorption of water from the collecting ducts?
a) Aldosterone
b) Renin
c) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
d) Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
Answer: c
Explanation: Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) increases water permeability of the collecting ducts,
promoting water reabsorption and concentrating urine. Aldosterone regulates sodium reabsorption, not
directly water.
Question 11: Type 2 diabetes mellitus is primarily characterized by which pathophysiologic feature?
a) Autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells
b) Peripheral tissue insulin resistance
c) Absolute insulin deficiency
d) Viral-induced pancreatic inflammation
Answer: b
Explanation: Type 2 diabetes is characterized by peripheral insulin resistance (muscle, fat, liver cells fail
to respond properly to insulin) combined with relative insulin deficiency. Type 1 involves autoimmune
beta cell destruction and absolute insulin deficiency.
Question 12: What are the clinical manifestations of Graves' disease?
a) Myxedema, fatigue, cold sensitivity
b) Exophthalmos, goiter, heat intolerance, anxiety
c) Polyuria, polydipsia, weight gain
d) Hypotension, bradycardia, constipation
Answer: b
(Latest Updated) – Rasmussen 200 Practice Questions with
Verified Answers & Explanations
Question 1: Which of the following assessment findings indicates an alteration in homeostatic control
mechanisms?
a) Bradycardia
b) Fever
c) Hypertension
d) Tachypnea
Answer: b
Explanation: Fever indicates a change in the body's homeostatic set point, typically triggered by
pyrogens acting on the hypothalamus, resetting it to a higher temperature. The other options can be
physiologic responses but do not directly indicate a resetting of homeostatic mechanisms.
Question 2: Injury that occurs when blood flow is diminished to tissue is called:
a) Hypoxic injury
b) Ischemic injury
c) Necrotic injury
d) Apoptotic injury
Answer: b
Explanation: Ischemic injury specifically refers to tissue damage caused by reduced or interrupted blood
flow (ischemia), leading to decreased oxygen and nutrient delivery. It is distinct from hypoxic injury,
which refers to low oxygen alone.
Question 3: During acute inflammation, which cell arrives early in great numbers?
a) Basophils
b) Lymphocytes
c) Neutrophils
d) Monocytes
,Answer: c
Explanation: Neutrophils (PMNs) are the first leukocytes to arrive at the site of inflammation, typically
within 60-90 minutes. They are the primary phagocytes in acute inflammation. Monocytes arrive later
and mature into macrophages.
Question 4: The cancer growth continuum is divided into which of the following stages?
a) Induction, latency, maturity
b) Initiation, promotion, progression
c) Detection, diagnosis, treatment
d) Activation, inhibition, regression
Answer: b
Explanation: The cancer growth continuum consists of three stages: initiation (DNA damage), promotion
(cell proliferation of initiated cells), and progression (acquisition of malignant characteristics).
Question 5: A patient with long-standing hypertension develops left ventricular hypertrophy. What is
the primary pathophysiological mechanism behind this adaptation?
a) Decreased afterload leading to reduced myocardial workload
b) Increased pressure overload causing myocardial muscle thickening
c) Reduced preload causing ventricular dilation
d) Increased oxygen supply leading to muscle atrophy
Answer: b
Explanation: Chronic hypertension increases afterload, forcing the left ventricle to work harder against
increased resistance. This pressure overload results in myocardial thickening (hypertrophy) as an
adaptive mechanism.
Question 6: A patient with heart failure presents with fluid accumulation in the lungs. Which mechanism
is responsible for pulmonary edema in this condition?
a) Increased oncotic pressure in pulmonary capillaries
b) Decreased hydrostatic pressure in pulmonary circulation
c) Increased hydrostatic pressure due to left ventricular failure
d) Decreased capillary permeability
,Answer: c
Explanation: Left-sided heart failure causes blood backup into the pulmonary circulation, increasing
hydrostatic pressure in the pulmonary capillaries. This increased pressure pushes fluid into the alveoli,
causing pulmonary edema.
Question 7: A patient experiencing an acute asthma attack has difficulty exhaling air. What is the
underlying pathophysiology?
a) Alveolar collapse due to surfactant deficiency
b) Bronchial smooth muscle constriction and airway inflammation
c) Increased lung compliance
d) Reduced mucus production
Answer: b
Explanation: In asthma, bronchial smooth muscle constriction (bronchospasm) and airway inflammation
narrow the airways, particularly during expiration, making it difficult to exhale air. Reduced mucus
production is not part of asthma pathophysiology.
Question 8: In chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), what structural change contributes most
to impaired gas exchange?
a) Thickening of alveolar walls
b) Destruction of alveolar septa and reduced surface area
c) Increased surfactant production
d) Pulmonary artery vasodilation
Answer: b
Explanation: In COPD (particularly emphysema), destruction of alveolar septa reduces the surface area
available for gas exchange. This loss of alveolar-capillary membranes directly impairs oxygen and carbon
dioxide exchange.
Question 9: What are the primary functions of the kidneys? (Select all that apply)
a) Regulation of blood pressure
b) Regulation of blood osmolarity
c) Removal of toxins
d) Activate vitamin D
, Answer: a, b, c, d (All of the above)
Explanation: The kidneys regulate blood pressure (via RAAS), blood osmolarity (via water/electrolyte
balance), remove toxins (via filtration), and activate vitamin D (converting 25-OH vitamin D to its active
form).
Question 10: What substance controls the reabsorption of water from the collecting ducts?
a) Aldosterone
b) Renin
c) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
d) Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
Answer: c
Explanation: Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) increases water permeability of the collecting ducts,
promoting water reabsorption and concentrating urine. Aldosterone regulates sodium reabsorption, not
directly water.
Question 11: Type 2 diabetes mellitus is primarily characterized by which pathophysiologic feature?
a) Autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells
b) Peripheral tissue insulin resistance
c) Absolute insulin deficiency
d) Viral-induced pancreatic inflammation
Answer: b
Explanation: Type 2 diabetes is characterized by peripheral insulin resistance (muscle, fat, liver cells fail
to respond properly to insulin) combined with relative insulin deficiency. Type 1 involves autoimmune
beta cell destruction and absolute insulin deficiency.
Question 12: What are the clinical manifestations of Graves' disease?
a) Myxedema, fatigue, cold sensitivity
b) Exophthalmos, goiter, heat intolerance, anxiety
c) Polyuria, polydipsia, weight gain
d) Hypotension, bradycardia, constipation
Answer: b
