HESI EXIT PN PRACTICE QUESTIONS 2026 –
COMPREHENSIVE PRACTICAL NURSING
EXAM REVIEW 200 ACTUAL EXAM
QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT VERIFIED
ANSWERS PLUS RATIONALES
The charge nurse of a medical surgical unit is alerted to an impending disaster
requiring implementation of the hospital's disaster plan. Specific facts about
the nature of this disaster are not yet known. Which instruction should the
charge nurse give to the other staff members at this time?
A.Prepare to evacuate the unit, starting with the bedridden clients.
B.UAPs should report to the emergency center to handle transports.
C.The licensed staff should begin counting wheelchairs and IV poles on the
unit.
D.Continue with current assignments until more instructions are received.
D
When faced with an impending disaster, hospital personnel may be alerted but
should continue with current client care assignments until further instructions are
received (D). Evacuation is typically a response of last resort that begins with clients
who are most able to ambulate (A). (B) is premature and is likely to increase the
chaos if incoming casualties are anticipated. (C) is poor utilization of personnel.
The nurse assesses a client while the UAP measures the client's vital signs.
The client's vital signs change suddenly, and the nurse determines that the
, Page 2 of 46
client's condition is worsening. The nurse is unsure of the client's
resuscitative status and needs to check the client's medical record for any
advanced directives. Which action should the nurse implement?
A.Ask the UAP to check for the advanced directive while the nurse completes
the assessment.
B.Assign the UAP to complete the assessment while the nurse checks for the
advanced directive.
C.Check the medical record for the advanced directive and then complete the
client assessment.
D.Call for the charge nurse to check the advanced directive while continuing to
assess the client.
D
Because the client's condition is worsening, the nurse should remain with the client
and continue the assessment while calling for help from the charge nurse to
determine the client's resuscitative status (D). (A and B) are tasks that must be
completed by a nurse and cannot be delegated to the UAP. (C) is contraindicated.
The nurse is preparing a client for surgery scheduled in 2 hours. A UAP is
helping the nurse. Which task is important for the nurse to perform, rather
than the UAP?
A.Remove the client's nail polish and dentures.
B.Assist the client to the restroom to void.
C.Obtain the client's height and weight.
D.Offer the client emotional support.
D
By using therapeutic techniques to offer support (D), the nurse can determine any
client concerns that need to be addressed. (A, B, and C) are all actions that can be
performed by the UAP under the supervision of the nurse.
Until the census on the obstetrics (OB) unit increases, an unlicensed assistive
personnel (UAP) who usually works in labor and delivery and the newborn
nursery is assigned to work on the postoperative unit. Which client would be
best for the charge nurse to assign to this UAP?
, Page 3 of 46
A.An adolescent who was readmitted to the hospital because of a
postoperative infection
B.A woman with a new colostomy who requires discharge teaching
C.A woman who had a hip replacement and may be transferred to the home
care unit
D.A man who had a cholecystectomy and currently has a nasogastric tube set
to intermittent suction
C
The charge nurse will be responsible for providing a report to the home care unit if
the transfer occurs (A). The client is infected and an employee who works on an OB
unit should be assigned to clean cases in case the employee is required to return to
the OB unit (B). This requires the skills of a registered nurse (RN) to do discharge
teaching and provide emotional support (D). This may require skills beyond the level
of this UAP.
A male client is admitted for observation after being hit on the head with a
baseball bat. Six hours after admission, the client attempts to crawl out of bed
and asks the nurse why there are so many bugs in his bed. His vital signs are
stable, and the pulse oximeter reading is 98% on room air. Which intervention
should the nurse perform first?
A.Administer oxygen per nasal cannula at 2 L/min.
B.Plan to check his vital signs again in 30 minutes.
C.Notify the health care provider of the change in mental status.
D.Ask the client why he thinks there are bugs in the bed.
C
One of the earliest signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) is a change in
mental status (C). It is important to act early and quickly when symptoms of
increased ICP occur. Because his oxygen saturation is normal, the administration of
oxygen (A) is not the top priority. Vital signs should be monitored frequently (B), but
the client's confusion should be reported immediately. (D) is not a useful intervention.
The nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving bedside conscious sedation
with midazolam hydrochloride (Versed). In assessing the client, the nurse
determines that the client has slurred speech with diplopia. Based on this
finding, what action should the nurse take?
, Page 4 of 46
A.Open the airway with a chin lift-head tilt maneuver.
B.Obtain a fingerstick glucose reading.
C.Administer flumazenil (Romazicon).
D.Continue to monitor the client.
D
The desired level III in conscious sedation includes slurred speech, glazed eyes, and
marked diplopia. Because this is the desired outcome of the medication regimen, no
action is needed but continuing to monitor the client (D). The airway is open if the
client is able to talk (A). There are no signs of hypoglycemia (B). No reversal is
necessary for the benzodiazepine (Versed) without signs of oversedation, such as
respiratory depression (C).
The nurse is assessing a client using the Snellen chart and determines that the
client's visual acuity is the same as in a previous examination, which was
recorded as 20/100. When the client asks the meaning of this, which
information should the nurse provide?
A.This visual acuity result is five times worse that of a normal finding.
B.This line should be seen clearly when the client wears corrective lenses.
C.A client with normal vision can read at 100 feet what this client reads at 20
feet.
D.This client can see at 100 feet what a client with normal vision can see at 20
feet.
C
The interpretation of the client's visual acuity is compared to the Snellen scale of
20/20, which indicates that the letter size on the Snellen chart is seen clearly and
read by a client with normal vision at 20 feet. A finding of 20/100 means that this
client can read at 20 feet what a person with normal vision can read at 100 feet (C).
(A, B, and D) are inaccurate.
A client with small cell carcinoma of the lung has also developed syndrome of
inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which outcome finding is the
priority for this client?
A.Reduced peripheral edema