D441 Pharmacology Week 5 Practice Quiz 2026 |WGU
1. A patient prescribed Lisinopril for hypertension develops a persistent dry
cough. Which mechanism explains this side effect?
A. Direct irritation of the pharyngeal mucosa
B. Accumulation of bradykinin in the respiratory tract
C. Increased sensitivity of the cough reflex to dust
D. Inhibition of surfactant production in the lungs
Answer: B
Rationale: ACE inhibitors like Lisinopril inhibit the enzyme that breaks down bradykinin,
leading to its accumulation in the lungs, which triggers a dry cough in some patients.
2. When administering intravenous Furosemide, the nurse should monitor for
which electrolyte imbalance?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hypernatremia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hypophosphatemia
Answer: A
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that increases the excretion of potassium, sodium,
and water, putting the patient at significant risk for hypokalemia.
,3. A patient on Warfarin therapy has an INR of 7.5 and active bleeding. Which
medication should the nurse prepare to administer?
A. Protamine sulfate
B. Vitamin K
C. Enoxaparin
D. Calcium gluconate
Answer: B
Rationale: Vitamin K is the specific antidote for Warfarin-induced coagulopathy and
elevated INR.
4. Which laboratory value is used to monitor the therapeutic effect of Heparin?
A. Prothrombin time (PT)
B. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
D. Platelet count
Answer: C
Rationale: The aPTT is used to monitor the effectiveness of unfractionated Heparin
therapy to ensure it is within the therapeutic range.
5. What is the most appropriate action before administering a dose of Digoxin?
A. Monitor the patient’s respiratory rate
B. Check the patient’s blood pressure while sitting
C. Assess the apical pulse for one full minute
D. Evaluate the patient’s temperature
Answer: C
Rationale: Digoxin can cause bradycardia; therefore, the apical pulse must be checked for
one minute, and the dose held if the heart rate is below 60 bpm.
, 6. Beta-blockers like Metoprolol should be used with caution in diabetic
patients because they can:
A. Mask the symptoms of hypoglycemia
B. Increase blood glucose levels significantly
C. Cause severe insulin resistance
D. Lead to diabetic ketoacidosis
Answer: A
Rationale: Beta-blockers can mask autonomic symptoms of hypoglycemia, such as
tachycardia and tremors, making it difficult for patients to recognize low blood sugar.
7. A patient is prescribed sublingual Nitroglycerin for chest pain. Which common
side effect should the nurse educate the patient about?
A. Urinary retention
B. Constipation
C. Dry mouth
D. Headache
Answer: D
Rationale: Vasodilation caused by Nitroglycerin often leads to a headache, which is a
common and expected side effect of the medication.
8. A patient taking Amlodipine reports swelling in their ankles. What is this side
effect known as?
A. Ascites
B. Pulmonary edema
C. Peripheral edema
D. Lymphedema
Answer: C
Rationale: Peripheral edema is a well-known side effect of Calcium Channel Blockers like
Amlodipine due to preferential arterial vasodilation.
1. A patient prescribed Lisinopril for hypertension develops a persistent dry
cough. Which mechanism explains this side effect?
A. Direct irritation of the pharyngeal mucosa
B. Accumulation of bradykinin in the respiratory tract
C. Increased sensitivity of the cough reflex to dust
D. Inhibition of surfactant production in the lungs
Answer: B
Rationale: ACE inhibitors like Lisinopril inhibit the enzyme that breaks down bradykinin,
leading to its accumulation in the lungs, which triggers a dry cough in some patients.
2. When administering intravenous Furosemide, the nurse should monitor for
which electrolyte imbalance?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hypernatremia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hypophosphatemia
Answer: A
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that increases the excretion of potassium, sodium,
and water, putting the patient at significant risk for hypokalemia.
,3. A patient on Warfarin therapy has an INR of 7.5 and active bleeding. Which
medication should the nurse prepare to administer?
A. Protamine sulfate
B. Vitamin K
C. Enoxaparin
D. Calcium gluconate
Answer: B
Rationale: Vitamin K is the specific antidote for Warfarin-induced coagulopathy and
elevated INR.
4. Which laboratory value is used to monitor the therapeutic effect of Heparin?
A. Prothrombin time (PT)
B. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
D. Platelet count
Answer: C
Rationale: The aPTT is used to monitor the effectiveness of unfractionated Heparin
therapy to ensure it is within the therapeutic range.
5. What is the most appropriate action before administering a dose of Digoxin?
A. Monitor the patient’s respiratory rate
B. Check the patient’s blood pressure while sitting
C. Assess the apical pulse for one full minute
D. Evaluate the patient’s temperature
Answer: C
Rationale: Digoxin can cause bradycardia; therefore, the apical pulse must be checked for
one minute, and the dose held if the heart rate is below 60 bpm.
, 6. Beta-blockers like Metoprolol should be used with caution in diabetic
patients because they can:
A. Mask the symptoms of hypoglycemia
B. Increase blood glucose levels significantly
C. Cause severe insulin resistance
D. Lead to diabetic ketoacidosis
Answer: A
Rationale: Beta-blockers can mask autonomic symptoms of hypoglycemia, such as
tachycardia and tremors, making it difficult for patients to recognize low blood sugar.
7. A patient is prescribed sublingual Nitroglycerin for chest pain. Which common
side effect should the nurse educate the patient about?
A. Urinary retention
B. Constipation
C. Dry mouth
D. Headache
Answer: D
Rationale: Vasodilation caused by Nitroglycerin often leads to a headache, which is a
common and expected side effect of the medication.
8. A patient taking Amlodipine reports swelling in their ankles. What is this side
effect known as?
A. Ascites
B. Pulmonary edema
C. Peripheral edema
D. Lymphedema
Answer: C
Rationale: Peripheral edema is a well-known side effect of Calcium Channel Blockers like
Amlodipine due to preferential arterial vasodilation.
