D441 Pharmacology Antibiotics & Anti-Infectives Practice Pack 2026
|WGU
1. A nurse is preparing to administer the first dose of a broad-spectrum
antibiotic. Which action is the highest priority before administration?
A. Monitor the patient for a possible allergic reaction
B. Obtain the prescribed specimen for culture and sensitivity
C. Educate the patient on the importance of finishing the course
D. Assess the patient’s renal and hepatic function tests
Answer: B
Rationale: To ensure the most effective treatment, culture and sensitivity specimens must
be obtained before the first dose of antibiotic is given to avoid interfering with the results.
2. A patient prescribed Penicillin G reports a history of severe anaphylaxis to
Cephalosporins. What is the most appropriate nursing action?
A. Administer the Penicillin G as ordered and monitor closely
B. Administer a smaller test dose of Penicillin G
C. Withhold the medication and notify the healthcare provider
D. Pre-medicate the patient with diphenhydramine before administration
Answer: C
Rationale: There is a cross-sensitivity risk (approximately 1% to 10%) between penicillins
and cephalosporins; if the patient had a severe anaphylactic reaction, the drug should be
withheld.
,3. Which teaching point is essential for a patient prescribed Tetracycline for
acne?
A. Avoid direct sunlight and use high-SPF sunscreen
B. Take the medication with a full glass of milk or yogurt
C. Expect the urine to turn a bright reddish-orange color
D. Double the dose if a pill is missed to maintain blood levels
Answer: A
Rationale: Tetracyclines cause significant photosensitivity. They should not be taken with
dairy as it inhibits absorption, and they do not turn urine orange.
4. A patient receiving Gentamicin should be monitored most closely for which of
the following adverse effects?
A. Tendon pain and inflammation
B. Discoloration of the teeth
C. Tinnitus and hearing loss
D. Severe diarrhea and abdominal cramping
Answer: C
Rationale: Aminoglycosides like Gentamicin are known for their potential to cause
ototoxicity (hearing loss and tinnitus) and nephrotoxicity.
5. Which antibiotic carries a Black Box Warning for increased risk of tendonitis
and tendon rupture?
A. Erythromycin
B. Amoxicillin
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Linezolid
Answer: C
Rationale: Fluoroquinolones, such as Ciprofloxacin and Levofloxacin, are associated with a
risk of tendon rupture, especially in older adults or those taking steroids.
, 6. A patient is receiving Vancomycin IV for an MRSA infection. During the
infusion, the patient develops flushing of the neck and face. What should the
nurse do first?
A. Stop the infusion and prepare to administer epinephrine
B. Document the reaction as an allergy to Vancomycin
C. Slowing the rate of the infusion
D. Apply cold compresses to the flushed areas
Answer: C
Rationale: Red Man Syndrome is a rate-dependent infusion reaction, not a true allergy.
Slowing the infusion rate usually resolves the symptoms.
7. A patient is prescribed Metronidazole for an anaerobic infection. Which
substance must the patient be advised to avoid completely?
A. Alcoholic beverages
B. Aged cheeses
C. Grapefruit juice
D. Leafy green vegetables
Answer: A
Rationale: Metronidazole causes a disulfiram-like reaction when combined with alcohol,
leading to severe nausea, vomiting, and tachycardia.
8. What is the primary rationale for using a combination of Trimethoprim and
Sulfamethoxazole?
A. To reduce the risk of Stevens-Johnson Syndrome
B. To allow for once-daily dosing schedules
C. To produce a synergistic effect that inhibits bacterial folic acid synthesis
D. To prevent the development of superinfections like C. diff
Answer: C
|WGU
1. A nurse is preparing to administer the first dose of a broad-spectrum
antibiotic. Which action is the highest priority before administration?
A. Monitor the patient for a possible allergic reaction
B. Obtain the prescribed specimen for culture and sensitivity
C. Educate the patient on the importance of finishing the course
D. Assess the patient’s renal and hepatic function tests
Answer: B
Rationale: To ensure the most effective treatment, culture and sensitivity specimens must
be obtained before the first dose of antibiotic is given to avoid interfering with the results.
2. A patient prescribed Penicillin G reports a history of severe anaphylaxis to
Cephalosporins. What is the most appropriate nursing action?
A. Administer the Penicillin G as ordered and monitor closely
B. Administer a smaller test dose of Penicillin G
C. Withhold the medication and notify the healthcare provider
D. Pre-medicate the patient with diphenhydramine before administration
Answer: C
Rationale: There is a cross-sensitivity risk (approximately 1% to 10%) between penicillins
and cephalosporins; if the patient had a severe anaphylactic reaction, the drug should be
withheld.
,3. Which teaching point is essential for a patient prescribed Tetracycline for
acne?
A. Avoid direct sunlight and use high-SPF sunscreen
B. Take the medication with a full glass of milk or yogurt
C. Expect the urine to turn a bright reddish-orange color
D. Double the dose if a pill is missed to maintain blood levels
Answer: A
Rationale: Tetracyclines cause significant photosensitivity. They should not be taken with
dairy as it inhibits absorption, and they do not turn urine orange.
4. A patient receiving Gentamicin should be monitored most closely for which of
the following adverse effects?
A. Tendon pain and inflammation
B. Discoloration of the teeth
C. Tinnitus and hearing loss
D. Severe diarrhea and abdominal cramping
Answer: C
Rationale: Aminoglycosides like Gentamicin are known for their potential to cause
ototoxicity (hearing loss and tinnitus) and nephrotoxicity.
5. Which antibiotic carries a Black Box Warning for increased risk of tendonitis
and tendon rupture?
A. Erythromycin
B. Amoxicillin
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Linezolid
Answer: C
Rationale: Fluoroquinolones, such as Ciprofloxacin and Levofloxacin, are associated with a
risk of tendon rupture, especially in older adults or those taking steroids.
, 6. A patient is receiving Vancomycin IV for an MRSA infection. During the
infusion, the patient develops flushing of the neck and face. What should the
nurse do first?
A. Stop the infusion and prepare to administer epinephrine
B. Document the reaction as an allergy to Vancomycin
C. Slowing the rate of the infusion
D. Apply cold compresses to the flushed areas
Answer: C
Rationale: Red Man Syndrome is a rate-dependent infusion reaction, not a true allergy.
Slowing the infusion rate usually resolves the symptoms.
7. A patient is prescribed Metronidazole for an anaerobic infection. Which
substance must the patient be advised to avoid completely?
A. Alcoholic beverages
B. Aged cheeses
C. Grapefruit juice
D. Leafy green vegetables
Answer: A
Rationale: Metronidazole causes a disulfiram-like reaction when combined with alcohol,
leading to severe nausea, vomiting, and tachycardia.
8. What is the primary rationale for using a combination of Trimethoprim and
Sulfamethoxazole?
A. To reduce the risk of Stevens-Johnson Syndrome
B. To allow for once-daily dosing schedules
C. To produce a synergistic effect that inhibits bacterial folic acid synthesis
D. To prevent the development of superinfections like C. diff
Answer: C
