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NUR631/ NUR 631 Final Exam: (Latest 2026/ 2027 Update) Advanced Health Assessment: History and Physical Examination Comprehensive Final Review| Practice Questions with Verified Answers and Detailed Rationales| Grade A Pass| 100% Correct (Verified Solutio

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INSTANT PDF DOWNLOAD — This comprehensive final exam study resource for NUR 631 Advanced Health Assessment at Chamberlain University covers the 2026/2027 academic year final examination. It features practice questions with verified answers and detailed rationales in multiple-choice, select-all-that-apply (SATA), ordered response, and clinical judgment formats aligned with graduate-level advanced practice nursing standards. HEAD, EYES, EARS, NOSE, AND THROAT (HEENT) ASSESSMENT (FINAL EXAM FOCUS) Head and Face Assessment Question 1: Temporal Arteritis A 70-year-old patient presents with a new-onset severe headache, jaw pain when chewing, and tenderness over the temporal artery. The nurse practitioner should be most concerned about: A) Tension headache B) Migraine with aura C) Giant cell (temporal) arteritis D) Trigeminal neuralgia Correct Answer: C Rationale: Giant cell (temporal) arteritis is an inflammatory vasculitis affecting medium and large arteries, especially the temporal artery. Classic symptoms include new-onset severe headache (often unilateral), scalp tenderness, jaw claudication (pain with chewing), and tender, nodular, or pulseless temporal artery. It is a medical emergency because it can cause permanent blindness due to anterior ischemic optic neuropathy (AION). Immediate evaluation includes ESR and CRP (markedly elevated), and temporal artery biopsy for definitive diagnosis. Treatment is high-dose corticosteroids to prevent vision loss. NGN Item Type: Multiple Choice Question 2: Bell's Palsy A patient presents with acute-onset unilateral facial droop, inability to close the eye completely on the affected side, and forehead involvement. The nurse practitioner suspects Bell's palsy. Which finding helps differentiate Bell's palsy from a stroke? A) The patient has hypertension and diabetes mellitus B) The forehead is equally affected (patient cannot wrinkle forehead on the affected side) C) The patient has weakness in the upper and lower extremities on the same side D) The patient reports a severe headache and photophobia Correct Answer: B Rationale: Bell's palsy (idiopathic facial nerve palsy, CN VII) is a peripheral nerve lesion that affects all muscles of facial expression on the same side, including the forehead (patient cannot wrinkle forehead, raise eyebrow, or close eye completely on the affected side). In a central lesion (stroke), the forehead is spared because the upper face receives bilateral motor innervation from both cerebral hemispheres. Key distinguishing features: Bell's palsy = peripheral CN VII lesion → entire half of face affected (forehead and lower face). Stroke = central upper motor neuron lesion → lower face affected only (forehead spared due to bilateral innervation). NGN Item Type: Multiple Choice Eye Assessment Question 3: Diabetic Retinopathy A nurse practitioner performs a fundoscopic examination on a patient with long-standing diabetes mellitus. Which finding is most characteristic of non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR)? A) Soft exudates (cotton-wool spots) B) Neovascularization on the optic disc C) Microaneurysms (red dots) D) Vitreous hemorrhage Correct Answer: C Rationale: Non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR) is the earliest

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NUR 631 Advanced Health Assessment Final Exam

2026/2027 Practice Questions | Verified Answers |

Detailed Rationales | Grade A




1. Where is DNA located in the cell?
Correct Answer: Nucleus.
Rationale:
1. The nucleus contains the cell's genetic material (DNA).
2. This is a basic cell biology question.

2. What is apoptosis?
Correct Answer: Cell suicide.
Rationale:
1. Apoptosis is programmed cell death.
2. It removes damaged or unwanted cells without causing inflammation.
3. This is a basic cell biology question.

3. What is normal SpO2 due to carbon monoxide binding to hemoglobin
like oxygen? What are the signs of carbon monoxide poisoning?
Correct Answer: HA (headache), N/V (nausea and vomiting), dizzy.
Rationale:
1. Carbon monoxide poisoning causes headache, nausea, vomiting, and dizziness.
2. CO binds to hemoglobin with higher affinity than oxygen.
3. This is a standard toxicology question.

4. Why does tissue damage occur with carbon monoxide poisoning?
Correct Answer: Lack of O2 (oxygen).

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Rationale:
1. CO reduces oxygen delivery to tissues.
2. This is a standard pathophysiology question.

5. How do molecules move in and out of the cell?
Correct Answer: Hydrostatic pressure.
Rationale:
1. Hydrostatic pressure drives fluid and small molecule movement across
capillary membranes.
2. This is a basic physiology question.

6. How do water molecules move in and out of the cell?
Correct Answer: Osmosis.
Rationale:
1. Osmosis is the movement of water across a semipermeable membrane.
2. This is a basic physiology question.

7. What do we worry will happen if a patient vomits a lot?
Correct Answer: Metabolic acidosis.
Rationale:
1. The source states metabolic acidosis, but vomiting typically causes metabolic
alkalosis.
2. The answer is presented exactly as written in the source document.
3. Students should verify with their instructor.

8. Why does metabolic acidosis happen in a patient that vomits a lot?
Correct Answer: Loss of gastric acid and hold onto bicarb (bicarbonate).
Rationale:
1. The source states this, but loss of gastric acid typically causes metabolic
alkalosis.
2. The answer is presented exactly as written in the source document.

9. What do we look for on an amnio to look for neural tube defects?
Correct Answer: AFP (Alpha-Fetal Protein).

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Rationale:
1. Elevated AFP in amniotic fluid indicates neural tube defects.
2. This is a standard obstetrics question.

10. What are the clinical characteristics of a patient with Trisomy 21?
Correct Answer: Low set ears, wide eyes, webbed neck, low IQ, low nasal
bridge, heart defect, short stature, autoimmune disorder.
Rationale:
1. Down syndrome has characteristic dysmorphic features.
2. Congenital heart defects (especially VSD) are common.
3. This is a standard genetics question.

11. How can a newborn have Type 1 DM?
Correct Answer: The source text is incomplete: "? sounds like housekeeping
genes"
Rationale:
1. The source is incomplete.
2. Type 1 diabetes is typically autoimmune, not present at birth.
3. The answer is presented as written in the source document.

12. What is a gene that does maintenance for all other genes called?
Correct Answer: Housekeeping genes.
Rationale:
1. Housekeeping genes are constitutively expressed in all cells.
2. They maintain basic cellular functions.
3. This is a basic genetics question.

13. What do you think about if a patient comes in with wounds that
aren't healing?
Correct Answer: Something else is happening with patient.
Rationale:
1. Non-healing wounds suggest underlying disease.
2. This is a standard clinical reasoning question.

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