NUR 631 Advanced Health Assessment Exam 1
Practice Test 2026/2027 Questions with Verified
Answers and Detailed Rationales Grade A Pass.
Question 1: Which of the following is the LEAST important factor to
consider when making health screening decisions?
A. Life expectancy
B. Patient age
C. Patient preference
D. Time interval until benefit from screening accrues
E. Patient preference
Correct Answer: E. Patient preference (listed twice; the least important is
patient age according to standard screening guidelines, but the source lists
"Patient preference" as the correct answer as it appears twice.)
Rationale:
1. The source indicates "Patient preference" as the answer, though it is listed
twice.
2. Screening decisions should balance benefits, harms, and patient values.
3. Patient age alone should not determine screening; life expectancy and time to
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benefit matter more.
4. This is a health screening and prevention question.
5. Students should verify with their instructor.
Question 2: What are the different types of head size and trauma
findings on examination?
Correct Answer: Atraumatic versus traumatic,
normocephalic/microcephalic/macrocephalic (e.g., fetal alcohol syndrome),
and symmetrical.
Rationale:
1. Normocephalic means normal head size and shape.
2. Microcephalic means abnormally small head (often from fetal alcohol
syndrome, genetic disorders).
3. Macrocephalic means abnormally large head (hydrocephalus, genetic
disorders).
4. Atraumatic means no signs of trauma; traumatic indicates injury.
5. Symmetry is assessed to rule out deformities.
Question 3: What are the red flag warning signs for headache that should
cause concern?
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Correct Answer: Progressively frequent over a 3-month period, sudden onset
"thunderclap" or "worst headache of my life" in 60 seconds or less, new onset
after age 50, aggravated by change in position or Valsalva maneuver,
associated symptoms (fever, diaphoresis, weight loss), presence of cancer,
HIV, or pregnancy (immunosuppression), recent head trauma, associated
papilledema, neck stiffness, or focal neurological deficits.
Rationale:
1. Progressive worsening over time suggests a growing mass or chronic
condition.
2. Thunderclap headache suggests subarachnoid hemorrhage (aneurysm
rupture).
3. New headache after age 50 raises concern for brain tumor or giant cell
arteritis.
4. Aggravation by Valsalva suggests increased intracranial pressure.
5. Focal deficits, papilledema, or neck stiffness indicate serious intracranial
pathology.
Question 4: How does vision work?
Correct Answer: Images reflected in reverse from right to left and upside
down. Light stimulates nerve impulses which are conducted through the
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retina to the optic nerve (CN II) and ending at the visual cortex (part of the
occipital lobe). Visual fields are the area of vision that can be visualized when
the eye is not moving.
Rationale:
1. Light enters the eye and is focused on the retina.
2. Photoreceptors (rods and cones) convert light to electrical signals.
3. The optic nerve (CN II) transmits signals to the brain.
4. The occipital lobe processes visual information.
5. This is basic eye physiology.
Question 5: What does a fundoscopic examination consist of?
Correct Answer: Red reflex, disc-to-cup ratio (2:1 is normal; disc should be
creamy white or yellow; large disc can represent glaucoma), and no A/V
nicking or narrowing.
Rationale:
1. Red reflex is the red glow from the retina when light is shone into the eye.
2. Disc-to-cup ratio greater than 0.5 suggests glaucoma.
3. A/V nicking indicates hypertensive retinopathy.
4. This is a standard ophthalmoscopy question.