Chamberlain University Nursing Actual Exam Screenshots –
200 Practice Questions 2026 Edition | Multi‑Choice with
Answer Key & Explanations
1. On which day of the menstrual cycle does ovulation typically occur in a 28‑day cycle?
A) Day 1
B) Day 7
C) Day 14
D) Day 28
Answer: C – Day 14
Explanation: In a textbook 28‑day cycle, ovulation occurs around day 14. Day 1 is the start of menses;
day 7 is follicular phase; day 28 is the end of the cycle.
2. What is the most common cause of vaginitis in women of reproductive age?
A) Atrophic vaginitis
B) Bacterial vaginosis
C) Candidiasis
D) Trichomoniasis
Answer: B – Bacterial vaginosis
Explanation: Bacterial vaginosis is the most frequent cause of vaginitis in reproductive‑age women,
followed by candidiasis and trichomoniasis.
3. An adolescent female presents with severe abdominal pain and an adnexal mass. What diagnosis
must be ruled out immediately?
A) Ovarian cyst
B) Ectopic pregnancy
C) Endometrioma
,D) Paraovarian cyst
Answer: B – Ectopic pregnancy
Explanation: In any sexually active female with abdominal pain and adnexal mass, ectopic pregnancy is a
life‑threatening emergency and must be excluded first.
4. Which of the following is a first‑line treatment for uncomplicated hypertension in pregnancy?
A) Lisinopril
B) Losartan
C) Labetalol
D) Hydrochlorothiazide
Answer: C – Labetalol
Explanation: Labetalol (a beta‑blocker) is a first‑line agent for hypertension in pregnancy. ACE inhibitors
(lisinopril) and ARBs (losartan) are contraindicated.
5. How is gestational diabetes typically screened between 24‑28 weeks?
A) Fasting plasma glucose
B) Hemoglobin A1C
C) 50‑g glucose challenge test followed by 100‑g OGTT if elevated
D) Random serum glucose
Answer: C – 50‑g glucose challenge test followed by 100‑g OGTT if elevated
Explanation: A 50‑g oral glucose challenge is the initial screen; if abnormal, a 100‑g oral glucose
tolerance test (OGTT) is performed for diagnosis.
6. In the second stage of labor, what is the maximum recommended duration of passive descent before
intervention is considered?
A) 30 minutes
B) 1 hour
,C) 2 hours
D) 4 hours
Answer: B – 1 hour
Explanation: In the second stage of labor, passive descent (no pushing) should generally not exceed one
hour before considering intervention.
7. What is the most appropriate initial management of a woman presenting with a first‑trimester
miscarriage and heavy bleeding with an open cervical os?
A) Expectant management
B) Medical management with misoprostol
C) Surgical evacuation (D&C)
D) Progesterone supplementation
Answer: C – Surgical evacuation (D&C)
Explanation: With heavy bleeding and an open os (incomplete or inevitable abortion), surgical
evacuation is preferred to control hemorrhage.
8. A 25‑year‑old woman reports moderate, cyclical pelvic pain that begins 2 days before menses. What
is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Endometriosis
B) Primary dysmenorrhea
C) Pelvic inflammatory disease
D) Irritable bowel syndrome
Answer: B – Primary dysmenorrhea
Explanation: Primary dysmenorrhea usually starts one to two days before menses and resolves with
bleeding, without underlying pelvic pathology.
9. Which of the following correctly describes the typical position of the uterus?
, A) Retroflexed
B) Anteverted and anteflexed
C) Mid‑sagittal and straight
D) Retroverted
Answer: B – Anteverted and anteflexed
Explanation: The normal uterine position is anteverted (tilting forward) and anteflexed (bent forward at
the junction of cervix and corpus).
10. The presence of clue cells on a saline wet mount is diagnostic of which condition?
A) Candidiasis
B) Trichomoniasis
C) Bacterial vaginosis
D) Atrophic vaginitis
Answer: C – Bacterial vaginosis
Explanation: Clue cells (vaginal epithelial cells covered with coccobacilli) are pathognomonic for
bacterial vaginosis.
11. A patient presents with nipple discharge that is spontaneous, unilateral, and serosanguineous. What
is the most likely cause?
A) Galactorrhea
B) Intraductal papilloma
C) Breast abscess
D) Fibrocystic change
Answer: B – Intraductal papilloma
Explanation: Spontaneous, single‑duct, serosanguineous discharge is classic for an intraductal papilloma.
Galactorrhea is typically bilateral and milky.
200 Practice Questions 2026 Edition | Multi‑Choice with
Answer Key & Explanations
1. On which day of the menstrual cycle does ovulation typically occur in a 28‑day cycle?
A) Day 1
B) Day 7
C) Day 14
D) Day 28
Answer: C – Day 14
Explanation: In a textbook 28‑day cycle, ovulation occurs around day 14. Day 1 is the start of menses;
day 7 is follicular phase; day 28 is the end of the cycle.
2. What is the most common cause of vaginitis in women of reproductive age?
A) Atrophic vaginitis
B) Bacterial vaginosis
C) Candidiasis
D) Trichomoniasis
Answer: B – Bacterial vaginosis
Explanation: Bacterial vaginosis is the most frequent cause of vaginitis in reproductive‑age women,
followed by candidiasis and trichomoniasis.
3. An adolescent female presents with severe abdominal pain and an adnexal mass. What diagnosis
must be ruled out immediately?
A) Ovarian cyst
B) Ectopic pregnancy
C) Endometrioma
,D) Paraovarian cyst
Answer: B – Ectopic pregnancy
Explanation: In any sexually active female with abdominal pain and adnexal mass, ectopic pregnancy is a
life‑threatening emergency and must be excluded first.
4. Which of the following is a first‑line treatment for uncomplicated hypertension in pregnancy?
A) Lisinopril
B) Losartan
C) Labetalol
D) Hydrochlorothiazide
Answer: C – Labetalol
Explanation: Labetalol (a beta‑blocker) is a first‑line agent for hypertension in pregnancy. ACE inhibitors
(lisinopril) and ARBs (losartan) are contraindicated.
5. How is gestational diabetes typically screened between 24‑28 weeks?
A) Fasting plasma glucose
B) Hemoglobin A1C
C) 50‑g glucose challenge test followed by 100‑g OGTT if elevated
D) Random serum glucose
Answer: C – 50‑g glucose challenge test followed by 100‑g OGTT if elevated
Explanation: A 50‑g oral glucose challenge is the initial screen; if abnormal, a 100‑g oral glucose
tolerance test (OGTT) is performed for diagnosis.
6. In the second stage of labor, what is the maximum recommended duration of passive descent before
intervention is considered?
A) 30 minutes
B) 1 hour
,C) 2 hours
D) 4 hours
Answer: B – 1 hour
Explanation: In the second stage of labor, passive descent (no pushing) should generally not exceed one
hour before considering intervention.
7. What is the most appropriate initial management of a woman presenting with a first‑trimester
miscarriage and heavy bleeding with an open cervical os?
A) Expectant management
B) Medical management with misoprostol
C) Surgical evacuation (D&C)
D) Progesterone supplementation
Answer: C – Surgical evacuation (D&C)
Explanation: With heavy bleeding and an open os (incomplete or inevitable abortion), surgical
evacuation is preferred to control hemorrhage.
8. A 25‑year‑old woman reports moderate, cyclical pelvic pain that begins 2 days before menses. What
is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Endometriosis
B) Primary dysmenorrhea
C) Pelvic inflammatory disease
D) Irritable bowel syndrome
Answer: B – Primary dysmenorrhea
Explanation: Primary dysmenorrhea usually starts one to two days before menses and resolves with
bleeding, without underlying pelvic pathology.
9. Which of the following correctly describes the typical position of the uterus?
, A) Retroflexed
B) Anteverted and anteflexed
C) Mid‑sagittal and straight
D) Retroverted
Answer: B – Anteverted and anteflexed
Explanation: The normal uterine position is anteverted (tilting forward) and anteflexed (bent forward at
the junction of cervix and corpus).
10. The presence of clue cells on a saline wet mount is diagnostic of which condition?
A) Candidiasis
B) Trichomoniasis
C) Bacterial vaginosis
D) Atrophic vaginitis
Answer: C – Bacterial vaginosis
Explanation: Clue cells (vaginal epithelial cells covered with coccobacilli) are pathognomonic for
bacterial vaginosis.
11. A patient presents with nipple discharge that is spontaneous, unilateral, and serosanguineous. What
is the most likely cause?
A) Galactorrhea
B) Intraductal papilloma
C) Breast abscess
D) Fibrocystic change
Answer: B – Intraductal papilloma
Explanation: Spontaneous, single‑duct, serosanguineous discharge is classic for an intraductal papilloma.
Galactorrhea is typically bilateral and milky.
