ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor 2026/2027: Ultimate NGN Prep Bundle —
Verified Questions & Rationales (99% NCLEX Probability)
This essential study resource is designed to help nursing students achieve a high
probability of passing the NCLEX on their first attempt by mastering the ATI RN
Comprehensive Predictor. It includes a detailed breakdown of Next Gen
NCLEX (NGN) question types, including case studies and "bow-tie" questions,
paired with comprehensive rationales for every answer. The guide covers all core
mastery areas, including Management of Care, Pharmacology, and Med-Surg, to
ensure you are prepared for the 180-question proctored exam. Fully updated for
the 2025/2026 academic year, this bundle serves as the ultimate remediation tool
to bridge your knowledge gaps and boost your exam confidence.
A nurse is caring for a client with a history of heart failure who is taking furosemide.
Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?
Answer: D. Baked potato with skin
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes potassium loss. Potatoes
are significantly higher in potassium than the other common options like white
bread or apples.
A nurse is assessing a client with a suspected placenta previa. Which of the
following actions is contraindicated?
Answer: B. Performing a manual vaginal exam
Rationale: If placenta previa is present, a vaginal exam can stimulate heavy
bleeding or cause placental abruption. Ultrasound is used for diagnosis.
A nurse is caring for a client with an obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) who is
performing a ritual. Which is the appropriate nursing action?
Answer: C. Allow the client enough time to complete the ritual initially.
Rationale: Stopping a ritual abruptly in a client with OCD causes extreme anxiety.
The goal is to gradually limit the time for rituals over the course of treatment.
A nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving a blood transfusion. Which finding
indicates a hemolytic reaction?
Answer: A. Lower back pain
Rationale: Low back pain (flank pain) is a classic sign of an acute hemolytic
reaction as the kidneys struggle to filter the lysed red blood cells.
A nurse is teaching a parent of a toddler about home safety. Which of the following
statements by the parent indicates an understanding?
, Answer: D. "I will turn the handles of my pots toward the back of the
stove."
Rationale: This prevents the toddler from reaching up and pulling hot liquids onto
themselves, a major cause of burns in this age group.
A nurse is reviewing lab results for a client with end-stage renal disease. Which
value should the nurse report?
Answer: B. Potassium 6.2 mEq/L
Rationale: Hyperkalemia is a life-threatening complication of renal failure and can
lead to cardiac dysrhythmias and arrest.
A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube. The nurse notices the water seal
chamber is tidaling. What should the nurse do?
Answer: C. Document the finding as normal.
Rationale: Tidaling (the rise and fall of water with respirations) is a normal finding
and indicates the system is patent. Continuous bubbling would indicate a leak.
A nurse is preparing to administer an IM injection to an infant. Which site should the
nurse use?
Answer: A. Vastus lateralis
Rationale: The vastus lateralis (thigh) is the most developed muscle in infants
and is the preferred site for IM injections until the child is walking.
A nurse is caring for a client with Schizophrenia who is hearing voices telling them to
"hurt the doctor." This is known as:
Answer: B. A command hallucination
Rationale: Command hallucinations are a high-risk safety issue because the
client may feel compelled to act on the voices.
A nurse is assessing a client with Cushing’s Syndrome. Which of the following is an
expected finding?
Answer: D. Truncal obesity and a "buffalo hump"
Rationale: Excess cortisol causes fat redistribution to the torso and the back of
the neck, as well as a rounded "moon face."
A nurse is delegating care for a client with a new tracheostomy. Which task is
appropriate for an LPN?
Answer: B. Providing tracheostomy care for a stable client.
Rationale: LPNs can perform sterile suctioning and site care on stable clients; the
RN must perform the initial assessment and care of a fresh, unstable stoma.
A nurse is caring for a client who is 12 hours postoperative following a total
thyroidectomy. Which equipment is most important to have at the bedside?
, Answer: A. Tracheostomy tray
Rationale: Post-thyroidectomy swelling can cause airway obstruction; emergency
access to the airway is the priority.
A nurse is teaching a client about a new prescription for Phenelzine (an MAOI).
Which food should be avoided?
Answer: C. Pepperoni pizza
Rationale: MAOIs interact with tyramine-rich foods (aged cheeses, cured meats,
fermented products) to cause a hypertensive crisis.
A nurse is assessing a child with intussusception. Which stool characteristic is
expected?
Answer: D. "Currant-jelly" stools
Rationale: Intussusception causes blood and mucus to mix with the stool,
resulting in a dark, jelly-like appearance.
A nurse is caring for a client who has been in a motor vehicle accident. Which sign
suggests a pneumothorax?
Answer: B. Tracheal deviation toward the unaffected side
Rationale: A tension pneumothorax shifts the mediastinum and trachea away
from the side of the collapsed lung.
A client has a prescription for Albuterol and Beclomethasone inhalers. How should
they be administered?
Answer: A. Use the Albuterol first, then wait 5 minutes for the
Beclomethasone.
Rationale: The bronchodilator (Albuterol) should be used first to open the airways
so the corticosteroid (Beclomethasone) can penetrate deeper into the lungs.
A nurse is assessing a client with a Glascow Coma Scale of 6. What is the priority?
Answer: C. Airway management and intubation readiness
Rationale: Any GCS score below 8 indicates the client is unable to protect their
airway.
A client is in the manic phase of Bipolar Disorder. What is the best meal choice?
Answer: D. A turkey wrap and a banana
Rationale: "Finger foods" allow a manic client to maintain caloric intake while
they are too hyperactive to sit down for a meal.
A nurse is teaching a client about a new prescription for Digoxin. Which symptom
should the client report as a sign of toxicity?
Answer: B. Yellow-tinged vision or halos around lights
, Rationale: Visual disturbances and nausea/vomiting are classic early signs of
digoxin toxicity.
A nurse is caring for a client with an Magnesium Sulfate infusion for preeclampsia.
The respiratory rate is 10/min and DTRs are 0. What is the first action?
Answer: C. Stop the infusion.
Rationale: These are signs of magnesium toxicity. Stopping the drug is the first
step before administering the antidote (calcium gluconate).
A nurse is assessing a newborn. Which of the following is a normal finding?
Answer: A. Acrocyanosis
Rationale: Blue hands and feet (acrocyanosis) is normal in the first 24-48 hours
of life as the newborn's circulation adjusts.
A client has a potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L. Which ECG change is expected?
Answer: B. Presence of U-waves
Rationale: Hypokalemia causes U-waves and flattened T-waves, while
hyperkalemia causes peaked T-waves.
A nurse is caring for a client with a history of Alcohol Use Disorder. Which vitamin is
typically administered to prevent Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome?
Answer: A. Vitamin B1 (Thiamine)
Rationale: Thiamine deficiency is common in chronic alcoholism and leads to
severe neurological damage.
A nurse is preparing a sterile field. Which action breaks the sterile field?
Answer: D. The nurse reaches over the sterile field to pick up a gauze.
Rationale: Reaching over a sterile field contaminates it due to potential dander or
microbes falling from the nurse's arm/clothing.
A client has a sudden onset of "the worst headache of my life." Which condition is
most likely?
Answer: C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Rationale: This "thunderclap" headache is a classic description of a ruptured
cerebral aneurysm.
A nurse is teaching a client with newly diagnosed Type 1 Diabetes. When is the best
time to exercise?
Answer: B. 1 hour after a meal when blood glucose is rising.
Rationale: Exercising when insulin is peaking or when blood sugar is already low
increases the risk of hypoglycemia.
A client with a hip fracture is in Buck’s Traction. What is the goal?
Answer: A. To reduce muscle spasms and maintain alignment.
Verified Questions & Rationales (99% NCLEX Probability)
This essential study resource is designed to help nursing students achieve a high
probability of passing the NCLEX on their first attempt by mastering the ATI RN
Comprehensive Predictor. It includes a detailed breakdown of Next Gen
NCLEX (NGN) question types, including case studies and "bow-tie" questions,
paired with comprehensive rationales for every answer. The guide covers all core
mastery areas, including Management of Care, Pharmacology, and Med-Surg, to
ensure you are prepared for the 180-question proctored exam. Fully updated for
the 2025/2026 academic year, this bundle serves as the ultimate remediation tool
to bridge your knowledge gaps and boost your exam confidence.
A nurse is caring for a client with a history of heart failure who is taking furosemide.
Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?
Answer: D. Baked potato with skin
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes potassium loss. Potatoes
are significantly higher in potassium than the other common options like white
bread or apples.
A nurse is assessing a client with a suspected placenta previa. Which of the
following actions is contraindicated?
Answer: B. Performing a manual vaginal exam
Rationale: If placenta previa is present, a vaginal exam can stimulate heavy
bleeding or cause placental abruption. Ultrasound is used for diagnosis.
A nurse is caring for a client with an obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) who is
performing a ritual. Which is the appropriate nursing action?
Answer: C. Allow the client enough time to complete the ritual initially.
Rationale: Stopping a ritual abruptly in a client with OCD causes extreme anxiety.
The goal is to gradually limit the time for rituals over the course of treatment.
A nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving a blood transfusion. Which finding
indicates a hemolytic reaction?
Answer: A. Lower back pain
Rationale: Low back pain (flank pain) is a classic sign of an acute hemolytic
reaction as the kidneys struggle to filter the lysed red blood cells.
A nurse is teaching a parent of a toddler about home safety. Which of the following
statements by the parent indicates an understanding?
, Answer: D. "I will turn the handles of my pots toward the back of the
stove."
Rationale: This prevents the toddler from reaching up and pulling hot liquids onto
themselves, a major cause of burns in this age group.
A nurse is reviewing lab results for a client with end-stage renal disease. Which
value should the nurse report?
Answer: B. Potassium 6.2 mEq/L
Rationale: Hyperkalemia is a life-threatening complication of renal failure and can
lead to cardiac dysrhythmias and arrest.
A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube. The nurse notices the water seal
chamber is tidaling. What should the nurse do?
Answer: C. Document the finding as normal.
Rationale: Tidaling (the rise and fall of water with respirations) is a normal finding
and indicates the system is patent. Continuous bubbling would indicate a leak.
A nurse is preparing to administer an IM injection to an infant. Which site should the
nurse use?
Answer: A. Vastus lateralis
Rationale: The vastus lateralis (thigh) is the most developed muscle in infants
and is the preferred site for IM injections until the child is walking.
A nurse is caring for a client with Schizophrenia who is hearing voices telling them to
"hurt the doctor." This is known as:
Answer: B. A command hallucination
Rationale: Command hallucinations are a high-risk safety issue because the
client may feel compelled to act on the voices.
A nurse is assessing a client with Cushing’s Syndrome. Which of the following is an
expected finding?
Answer: D. Truncal obesity and a "buffalo hump"
Rationale: Excess cortisol causes fat redistribution to the torso and the back of
the neck, as well as a rounded "moon face."
A nurse is delegating care for a client with a new tracheostomy. Which task is
appropriate for an LPN?
Answer: B. Providing tracheostomy care for a stable client.
Rationale: LPNs can perform sterile suctioning and site care on stable clients; the
RN must perform the initial assessment and care of a fresh, unstable stoma.
A nurse is caring for a client who is 12 hours postoperative following a total
thyroidectomy. Which equipment is most important to have at the bedside?
, Answer: A. Tracheostomy tray
Rationale: Post-thyroidectomy swelling can cause airway obstruction; emergency
access to the airway is the priority.
A nurse is teaching a client about a new prescription for Phenelzine (an MAOI).
Which food should be avoided?
Answer: C. Pepperoni pizza
Rationale: MAOIs interact with tyramine-rich foods (aged cheeses, cured meats,
fermented products) to cause a hypertensive crisis.
A nurse is assessing a child with intussusception. Which stool characteristic is
expected?
Answer: D. "Currant-jelly" stools
Rationale: Intussusception causes blood and mucus to mix with the stool,
resulting in a dark, jelly-like appearance.
A nurse is caring for a client who has been in a motor vehicle accident. Which sign
suggests a pneumothorax?
Answer: B. Tracheal deviation toward the unaffected side
Rationale: A tension pneumothorax shifts the mediastinum and trachea away
from the side of the collapsed lung.
A client has a prescription for Albuterol and Beclomethasone inhalers. How should
they be administered?
Answer: A. Use the Albuterol first, then wait 5 minutes for the
Beclomethasone.
Rationale: The bronchodilator (Albuterol) should be used first to open the airways
so the corticosteroid (Beclomethasone) can penetrate deeper into the lungs.
A nurse is assessing a client with a Glascow Coma Scale of 6. What is the priority?
Answer: C. Airway management and intubation readiness
Rationale: Any GCS score below 8 indicates the client is unable to protect their
airway.
A client is in the manic phase of Bipolar Disorder. What is the best meal choice?
Answer: D. A turkey wrap and a banana
Rationale: "Finger foods" allow a manic client to maintain caloric intake while
they are too hyperactive to sit down for a meal.
A nurse is teaching a client about a new prescription for Digoxin. Which symptom
should the client report as a sign of toxicity?
Answer: B. Yellow-tinged vision or halos around lights
, Rationale: Visual disturbances and nausea/vomiting are classic early signs of
digoxin toxicity.
A nurse is caring for a client with an Magnesium Sulfate infusion for preeclampsia.
The respiratory rate is 10/min and DTRs are 0. What is the first action?
Answer: C. Stop the infusion.
Rationale: These are signs of magnesium toxicity. Stopping the drug is the first
step before administering the antidote (calcium gluconate).
A nurse is assessing a newborn. Which of the following is a normal finding?
Answer: A. Acrocyanosis
Rationale: Blue hands and feet (acrocyanosis) is normal in the first 24-48 hours
of life as the newborn's circulation adjusts.
A client has a potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L. Which ECG change is expected?
Answer: B. Presence of U-waves
Rationale: Hypokalemia causes U-waves and flattened T-waves, while
hyperkalemia causes peaked T-waves.
A nurse is caring for a client with a history of Alcohol Use Disorder. Which vitamin is
typically administered to prevent Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome?
Answer: A. Vitamin B1 (Thiamine)
Rationale: Thiamine deficiency is common in chronic alcoholism and leads to
severe neurological damage.
A nurse is preparing a sterile field. Which action breaks the sterile field?
Answer: D. The nurse reaches over the sterile field to pick up a gauze.
Rationale: Reaching over a sterile field contaminates it due to potential dander or
microbes falling from the nurse's arm/clothing.
A client has a sudden onset of "the worst headache of my life." Which condition is
most likely?
Answer: C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Rationale: This "thunderclap" headache is a classic description of a ruptured
cerebral aneurysm.
A nurse is teaching a client with newly diagnosed Type 1 Diabetes. When is the best
time to exercise?
Answer: B. 1 hour after a meal when blood glucose is rising.
Rationale: Exercising when insulin is peaking or when blood sugar is already low
increases the risk of hypoglycemia.
A client with a hip fracture is in Buck’s Traction. What is the goal?
Answer: A. To reduce muscle spasms and maintain alignment.
