NUR 185 FINAL EXAM AND PRACTICE EXAM NEWEST 2026 ACTUAL EXAM
COMPLETE 300 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS/NEWEST UPDATE!!!!
Question 1
Which of the following actions must the Licensed Practical Nurse (LPN) perform immediately
before suctioning a patient on a ventilator?
A) Administer an oral dose of an antibiotic.
B) Set up a sterile field and hyperoxygenate the patient.
C) Place the patient in a prone position.
D) Decrease the fraction of inspired oxygen (FiO2).
E) Apply a warm compress to the patient's chest.
Correct Answer: B) Set up a sterile field and hyperoxygenate the patient.
Rationale: Suctioning removes oxygen as well as secretions, which can lead to hypoxia. To
prevent this, the nurse must hyperoxygenate the patient before the procedure and maintain
strict sterile technique to prevent introducing bacteria into the lower respiratory tract.
Question 2
If a ventilator alarm continues to ring and the nurse cannot immediately identify the cause, which
action is the priority?
A) Call the respiratory therapist and wait in the hallway.
B) Silence the alarm and check the patient's blood pressure.
C) Disconnect the patient from the vent and use an Ambu bag.
D) Change the ventilator settings to a lower pressure.
E) Administer a sedative to the patient.
Correct Answer: C) Disconnect the patient from the vent and use an Ambu bag.
Rationale: If a ventilator alarm persists and the cause (such as kinks or pump failure) is not
instantly corrected, the patient's ability to breathe is at risk. The nurse must manually
ventilate the patient with an Ambu bag to ensure oxygenation while help is called or the
machine is repaired.
Question 3
When performing tracheostomy suctioning on a ventilator patient, the LPN should limit the
duration of each suction pass to no more than:
A) 5 seconds
B) 10 seconds
C) 30 seconds
D) 60 seconds
E) 2 minutes
Correct Answer: B) Suction for 10 seconds
Rationale: Suctioning should be brief to minimize the risk of hypoxia and vagal stimulation,
which can cause bradycardia. 10 seconds is the standard maximum time allowed for a
single suctioning pass.
, 2
Question 4
Which intervention should the LPN avoid when performing ventilator or tracheostomy care?
A) Hyperoxygenating before suctioning.
B) Keeping the head of the bed at 30 degrees.
C) Instilling normal saline (NS) into the endotracheal tube to loosen secretions.
D) Monitoring vital signs frequently.
E) Performing oral care with chlorhexidine.
Correct Answer: C) No NS into endo tube or trach
Rationale: Instilling normal saline into the endotracheal tube is no longer recommended as
it can wash bacteria from the upper airway into the lungs, increasing the risk of Ventilator-
Associated Pneumonia (VAP).
Question 5
To prevent Ventilator-Associated Pneumonia (VAP), the LPN should ensure the head of the bed
(HOB) is maintained at:
A) 0 degrees (Flat)
B) 10–15 degrees
C) 30–45 degrees
D) 90 degrees
E) Trendelenburg position
Correct Answer: C) HOB 30-45 degrees
Rationale: Maintaining the HOB at 30–45 degrees helps prevent the aspiration of gastric
contents or oropharyngeal secretions, which are primary causes of VAP.
Question 6
Why is peptic ulcer prophylaxis (e.g., Pepcid, Protonix) commonly prescribed for patients on a
ventilator?
A) To increase the patient's appetite.
B) To prevent the need for an NG tube.
C) To decrease bacterial growth and reduce the risk of VAP.
D) To treat metabolic alkalosis.
E) To prevent weight loss during the acute phase.
Correct Answer: C) Peptic ulcer prophylaxis (decrease bacterial growth) using Pepcid,
Zantac, Protonix
Rationale: Patients on ventilators are under high physiological stress and are at risk for
stress ulcers. Prophylaxis prevents these ulcers and helps manage the pH of gastric
contents, which correlates with a lower risk of pneumonia if micro-aspiration occurs.
Question 7
A patient with Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) is at high risk for which acid-
base imbalance?
, 3
A) Respiratory alkalosis
B) Metabolic acidosis
C) Metabolic alkalosis
D) Respiratory acidosis
E) Metabolic syndrome
Correct Answer: D) Respiratory acidosis
Rationale: COPD, emphysema, and chronic bronchitis lead to alveolar hypoventilation and
air trapping. This results in the retention of carbon dioxide (CO2), which is an acid, leading
to respiratory acidosis.
Question 8
Which of the following sets of symptoms is characteristic of a patient experiencing respiratory
acidosis?
A) Hypoventilation and low heart rate.
B) Anxiety, shortness of breath, and cyanosis.
C) Excessive energy and hypertension.
D) Numbness and tingling in the toes.
E) Diarrhea and weight gain.
Correct Answer: B) S/S anxious, SOB, cyanotic, increased respirations
Rationale: In respiratory acidosis, the body is struggling with high CO2 and low O2. The
patient often becomes anxious and dyspneic, and may show cyanosis due to poor gas
exchange.
Question 9
Hyperventilation due to extreme anxiety or a panic attack is a common cause of:
A) Respiratory acidosis
B) Respiratory alkalosis
C) Metabolic acidosis
D) Metabolic alkalosis
E) Respiratory failure
Correct Answer: B) Hyperventilation
Rationale: Hyperventilation causes the patient to "blow off" too much CO2 (an acid). This
loss of CO2 increases the blood pH, resulting in respiratory alkalosis.
Question 10
A patient with Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA) or severe diarrhea is likely to develop:
A) Respiratory alkalosis
B) Metabolic acidosis
C) Metabolic alkalosis
D) Respiratory acidosis
E) Metabolic syndrome
, 4
Correct Answer: B) Diarrhea, DKA
Rationale: DKA involves the accumulation of ketoacids, and severe diarrhea involves the
loss of bicarbonate (a base) from the lower GI tract. Both conditions lower the blood pH,
causing metabolic acidosis.
Question 11
A patient who has been vomiting excessively or has had prolonged NG tube suctioning is most at
risk for:
A) Respiratory acidosis
B) Metabolic acidosis
C) Metabolic alkalosis
D) Respiratory alkalosis
E) Sepsis
Correct Answer: C) Vomiting, NG tube
Rationale: The stomach contains high amounts of hydrochloric acid. Loss of this acid
through vomiting or NG suctioning leads to an excess of bicarbonate in the body, causing
metabolic alkalosis.
Question 12
Which intervention is a core component of managing Metabolic Syndrome?
A) Increasing dietary carbohydrate intake.
B) Starting a high-fat diet.
C) Weight loss and smoking cessation.
D) Taking thyroid replacement hormones.
E) Avoiding all forms of exercise.
Correct Answer: C) Quit smoking, Lose weight
Rationale: Metabolic syndrome is a cluster of conditions that increase the risk of heart
disease and diabetes. Key management includes lifestyle modifications like weight loss,
carb control, and stopping smoking to improve cardiovascular health.
Question 13
Which fluid is the standard choice for resuscitation in a patient with extensive burns?
A) 0.45% Normal Saline
B) 5% Dextrose in Water (D5W)
C) Lactated Ringer's (LR)
D) Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN)
E) Distilled water
Correct Answer: C) LR
Rationale: Lactated Ringer’s is an isotonic crystalloid that most closely resembles the
electrolyte composition of human plasma, making it the fluid of choice for correcting
hypovolemia and preventing shock in burn patients.
COMPLETE 300 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS/NEWEST UPDATE!!!!
Question 1
Which of the following actions must the Licensed Practical Nurse (LPN) perform immediately
before suctioning a patient on a ventilator?
A) Administer an oral dose of an antibiotic.
B) Set up a sterile field and hyperoxygenate the patient.
C) Place the patient in a prone position.
D) Decrease the fraction of inspired oxygen (FiO2).
E) Apply a warm compress to the patient's chest.
Correct Answer: B) Set up a sterile field and hyperoxygenate the patient.
Rationale: Suctioning removes oxygen as well as secretions, which can lead to hypoxia. To
prevent this, the nurse must hyperoxygenate the patient before the procedure and maintain
strict sterile technique to prevent introducing bacteria into the lower respiratory tract.
Question 2
If a ventilator alarm continues to ring and the nurse cannot immediately identify the cause, which
action is the priority?
A) Call the respiratory therapist and wait in the hallway.
B) Silence the alarm and check the patient's blood pressure.
C) Disconnect the patient from the vent and use an Ambu bag.
D) Change the ventilator settings to a lower pressure.
E) Administer a sedative to the patient.
Correct Answer: C) Disconnect the patient from the vent and use an Ambu bag.
Rationale: If a ventilator alarm persists and the cause (such as kinks or pump failure) is not
instantly corrected, the patient's ability to breathe is at risk. The nurse must manually
ventilate the patient with an Ambu bag to ensure oxygenation while help is called or the
machine is repaired.
Question 3
When performing tracheostomy suctioning on a ventilator patient, the LPN should limit the
duration of each suction pass to no more than:
A) 5 seconds
B) 10 seconds
C) 30 seconds
D) 60 seconds
E) 2 minutes
Correct Answer: B) Suction for 10 seconds
Rationale: Suctioning should be brief to minimize the risk of hypoxia and vagal stimulation,
which can cause bradycardia. 10 seconds is the standard maximum time allowed for a
single suctioning pass.
, 2
Question 4
Which intervention should the LPN avoid when performing ventilator or tracheostomy care?
A) Hyperoxygenating before suctioning.
B) Keeping the head of the bed at 30 degrees.
C) Instilling normal saline (NS) into the endotracheal tube to loosen secretions.
D) Monitoring vital signs frequently.
E) Performing oral care with chlorhexidine.
Correct Answer: C) No NS into endo tube or trach
Rationale: Instilling normal saline into the endotracheal tube is no longer recommended as
it can wash bacteria from the upper airway into the lungs, increasing the risk of Ventilator-
Associated Pneumonia (VAP).
Question 5
To prevent Ventilator-Associated Pneumonia (VAP), the LPN should ensure the head of the bed
(HOB) is maintained at:
A) 0 degrees (Flat)
B) 10–15 degrees
C) 30–45 degrees
D) 90 degrees
E) Trendelenburg position
Correct Answer: C) HOB 30-45 degrees
Rationale: Maintaining the HOB at 30–45 degrees helps prevent the aspiration of gastric
contents or oropharyngeal secretions, which are primary causes of VAP.
Question 6
Why is peptic ulcer prophylaxis (e.g., Pepcid, Protonix) commonly prescribed for patients on a
ventilator?
A) To increase the patient's appetite.
B) To prevent the need for an NG tube.
C) To decrease bacterial growth and reduce the risk of VAP.
D) To treat metabolic alkalosis.
E) To prevent weight loss during the acute phase.
Correct Answer: C) Peptic ulcer prophylaxis (decrease bacterial growth) using Pepcid,
Zantac, Protonix
Rationale: Patients on ventilators are under high physiological stress and are at risk for
stress ulcers. Prophylaxis prevents these ulcers and helps manage the pH of gastric
contents, which correlates with a lower risk of pneumonia if micro-aspiration occurs.
Question 7
A patient with Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) is at high risk for which acid-
base imbalance?
, 3
A) Respiratory alkalosis
B) Metabolic acidosis
C) Metabolic alkalosis
D) Respiratory acidosis
E) Metabolic syndrome
Correct Answer: D) Respiratory acidosis
Rationale: COPD, emphysema, and chronic bronchitis lead to alveolar hypoventilation and
air trapping. This results in the retention of carbon dioxide (CO2), which is an acid, leading
to respiratory acidosis.
Question 8
Which of the following sets of symptoms is characteristic of a patient experiencing respiratory
acidosis?
A) Hypoventilation and low heart rate.
B) Anxiety, shortness of breath, and cyanosis.
C) Excessive energy and hypertension.
D) Numbness and tingling in the toes.
E) Diarrhea and weight gain.
Correct Answer: B) S/S anxious, SOB, cyanotic, increased respirations
Rationale: In respiratory acidosis, the body is struggling with high CO2 and low O2. The
patient often becomes anxious and dyspneic, and may show cyanosis due to poor gas
exchange.
Question 9
Hyperventilation due to extreme anxiety or a panic attack is a common cause of:
A) Respiratory acidosis
B) Respiratory alkalosis
C) Metabolic acidosis
D) Metabolic alkalosis
E) Respiratory failure
Correct Answer: B) Hyperventilation
Rationale: Hyperventilation causes the patient to "blow off" too much CO2 (an acid). This
loss of CO2 increases the blood pH, resulting in respiratory alkalosis.
Question 10
A patient with Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA) or severe diarrhea is likely to develop:
A) Respiratory alkalosis
B) Metabolic acidosis
C) Metabolic alkalosis
D) Respiratory acidosis
E) Metabolic syndrome
, 4
Correct Answer: B) Diarrhea, DKA
Rationale: DKA involves the accumulation of ketoacids, and severe diarrhea involves the
loss of bicarbonate (a base) from the lower GI tract. Both conditions lower the blood pH,
causing metabolic acidosis.
Question 11
A patient who has been vomiting excessively or has had prolonged NG tube suctioning is most at
risk for:
A) Respiratory acidosis
B) Metabolic acidosis
C) Metabolic alkalosis
D) Respiratory alkalosis
E) Sepsis
Correct Answer: C) Vomiting, NG tube
Rationale: The stomach contains high amounts of hydrochloric acid. Loss of this acid
through vomiting or NG suctioning leads to an excess of bicarbonate in the body, causing
metabolic alkalosis.
Question 12
Which intervention is a core component of managing Metabolic Syndrome?
A) Increasing dietary carbohydrate intake.
B) Starting a high-fat diet.
C) Weight loss and smoking cessation.
D) Taking thyroid replacement hormones.
E) Avoiding all forms of exercise.
Correct Answer: C) Quit smoking, Lose weight
Rationale: Metabolic syndrome is a cluster of conditions that increase the risk of heart
disease and diabetes. Key management includes lifestyle modifications like weight loss,
carb control, and stopping smoking to improve cardiovascular health.
Question 13
Which fluid is the standard choice for resuscitation in a patient with extensive burns?
A) 0.45% Normal Saline
B) 5% Dextrose in Water (D5W)
C) Lactated Ringer's (LR)
D) Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN)
E) Distilled water
Correct Answer: C) LR
Rationale: Lactated Ringer’s is an isotonic crystalloid that most closely resembles the
electrolyte composition of human plasma, making it the fluid of choice for correcting
hypovolemia and preventing shock in burn patients.
