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Exam (elaborations)

NR 226 Adult Health I - Exam 7 Practice 2026 |Chamberlain College

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NR 226 Adult Health I - Exam 7 Practice 2026 |Chamberlain College

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NR 226 Adult Health I - Exam 7 Practice 2026 |Chamberlain College


1. A patient with Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD) is being discharged.
Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

A. I will try to eat smaller, more frequent meals.

B. I will wait at least 3 hours after eating before lying down.

C. I will drink a glass of milk right before bedtime to coat my stomach.

D. I will avoid wearing tight-fitting clothing around my waist.

Answer: C
Rationale: Patients with GERD should avoid eating or drinking right before bedtime, as
this increases gastric acid production and the risk of reflux while sleeping.

2. The nurse is caring for a patient with acute pancreatitis. Which laboratory
result is the most specific indicator of pancreatic injury?

A. Decreased Serum Calcium

B. Elevated Serum Amylase

C. Elevated Serum Lipase

D. Elevated White Blood Cell Count

Answer: C
Rationale: Serum lipase is more specific to the pancreas than amylase and remains
elevated longer, making it a key diagnostic marker for acute pancreatitis.

,3. A patient diagnosed with Peptic Ulcer Disease (PUD) is prescribed sucralfate.
When should the nurse instruct the patient to take this medication?

A. With meals to aid absorption.

B. Only when experiencing abdominal pain.

C. Immediately after every meal.

D. One hour before meals and at bedtime.

Answer: D
Rationale: Sucralfate works by forming a protective barrier over the ulcer crater and is
most effective when taken on an empty stomach at least 1 hour before meals.

4. Which clinical manifestation is a classic sign of late-stage hepatic
encephalopathy?

A. Hyperactivity

B. Asterixis

C. Increased appetite

D. Bradycardia

Answer: B
Rationale: Asterixis (liver flap) is a flapping tremor of the hands and is a hallmark clinical
sign of hepatic encephalopathy due to high ammonia levels.

5. A nurse is reviewing the chart of a patient with Ulcerative Colitis. Which
finding is consistent with this diagnosis?

A. Bloody diarrhea and abdominal pain.

B. Presence of skip lesions.

C. Transmural inflammation throughout the GI tract.

D. High risk of fistula formation.

Answer: A
Rationale: Ulcerative colitis primarily affects the colon and rectum, characterized by
mucosal inflammation and frequent bloody stools.

, 6. The nurse is assessing a patient with suspected Cholecystitis. Where would
the nurse expect the patient to report pain?

A. Left Lower Quadrant (LLQ)

B. Right Upper Quadrant (RUQ) radiating to the right shoulder

C. Periumbilical area

D. Hypogastric region

Answer: B
Rationale: Cholecystitis typically causes RUQ pain that may radiate to the right scapula or
shoulder.

7. A patient with Cirrhosis has developed ascites. Which medication does the
nurse expect to be primary in managing this fluid volume excess?

A. Loperamide

B. Warfarin

C. Spironolactone

D. Magnesium hydroxide

Answer: C
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic often used to treat ascites
because it antagonizes aldosterone, which is elevated in cirrhosis.

8. What is the primary goal of treatment for a patient experiencing an acute
episode of Diverticulitis?

A. Increasing dietary fiber immediately.

B. Allowing the colon to rest and resolving infection.

C. Performing a colonoscopy.

D. Administering stimulant laxatives.

Answer: B
Rationale: Treatment for acute diverticulitis focuses on NPO or clear liquid status to rest
the bowel and antibiotics to treat infection.

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