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COMPREHENSIVE PRACTICE EXAM FOR FSCJ NUR1023C NURSING CONCEPTS 1 EXAM 2 200 QUESTIONS

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This comprehensive practice exam is specifically designed for students preparing for FSCJ NUR1023C (Nursing Concepts 1) Exam 2. It contains 200 NCLEX-style multiple-choice questions covering core modules such as Medication Administration, Dosage Calculations, Urinary/Bowel Elimination, and Acid-Base Balance. Every question includes a bolded correct answer and an italicized rationale to ensure deep understanding of the nursing process and clinical reasoning. Key topics include the "Five Rights" of med admin, ABG interpretation, wound care stages, and electrolyte imbalances. This is an essential study tool for Florida State College at Jacksonville nursing students aiming for an A on their second major nursing exam.

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COMPREHENSIVE PRACTICE EXAM FOR
FSCJ NUR1023C NURSING CONCEPTS 1
EXAM 2 200 QUESTIONS


FSCJ NUR1023C Exam 2 Practice Questions
1. A patient with a newly placed ileostomy asks the nurse about
the consistency of their stool. What is the nurse's best
response?
A. Your stool will be formed and easy to regulate.
B. The stool will be frequent and liquid because it bypasses the
large intestine.
C. You should expect solid fecal material every morning.
D. Drainage will only occur once every few days.
Rationale: Ileostomy drainage is frequent and liquid because it
contains digestive enzymes and bypasses the large intestine where
water absorption primarily occurs.
2. Which lab value is considered the most reliable indicator of
renal failure?
A. Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN)
B. Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR)
C. Serum Creatinine
D. Urine Specific Gravity
Rationale: While BUN and Creatinine are important, GFR (Normal:
125 mL/min) is the most reliable measure for detecting renal
impairment and failure.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular (IM)
injection to an adult. Which needle length and gauge are most
appropriate for the ventrogluteal muscle?
A. 5/8 inch, 25 gauge
B. 1/2 inch, 27 gauge
C. 1-1.25 inch, 22-25 gauge
D. 1.5 inch, 18 gauge
Rationale: IM injections for standard adult muscle sites typically
require a 1 to 1.25-inch needle with a 22-25 gauge to ensure the
medication reaches the muscle tissue.

,4. A patient reports sharp, stabbing pain following a surgical
procedure that started 2 days ago. This is classified as:
A. Acute pain
B. Chronic pain
C. Neuropathic pain
D. Phantom pain
Rationale: Acute pain is sudden, usually related to a specific injury or
surgery, and typically lasts for a short duration (days to weeks).
5. What is the priority nursing action if a medication error is
discovered?
A. Complete an incident report immediately.
B. Call the healthcare provider.
C. Assess the patient for adverse effects.
D. Notify the nurse manager.
Rationale: Patient safety always comes first; the nurse must assess
the patient for respiratory distress or other adverse effects before
proceeding with documentation.
6. A patient is diagnosed with C. difficile. Which hand hygiene
protocol must the nurse follow?
A. Use alcohol-based hand sanitizer only.
B. Handwashing is not required if gloves were worn.
C. Wash hands with soap and water.
D. Use a sterile scrub technique.
Rationale: Alcohol-based sanitizers are ineffective against C. diff
spores; mechanical friction with soap and water is required for
removal.
7. Which term describes the failure of the kidneys to excrete
urine, a condition considered life-threatening?
A. Anuria
B. Polyuria
C. Dysuria
D. Oliguria
Rationale: Anuria is the total failure of kidneys to produce or excrete
urine and requires immediate intervention.
8. When assessing pain using the PQRST mnemonic, what
does the "Q" represent?
A. Quantity
B. Quality

,C. Query
D. Quickness
Rationale: Quality refers to how the pain feels to the patient, such as
"stabbing," "sharp," or "dull".
9. A nurse notes a patient's urine specific gravity is 1.035. This
finding likely indicates:
A. Fluid volume excess
B. Dehydration
C. Normal kidney function
D. Diabetes insipidus
Rationale: A higher specific gravity indicates concentrated urine,
which is a hallmark sign of dehydration.
10. Which developmental stage, according to Erikson, applies
to a child from birth to 18 months?
A. Trust vs. Mistrust
B. Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt
C. Initiative vs. Guilt
D. Industry vs. Inferiority
Rationale: During Trust vs. Mistrust, infants rely on caregivers to
meet all basic needs to develop a sense of security.
11. A nurse is preparing to administer an eardrop to a 2-year-
old child. Which action is correct?
A. Pull the pinna up and back
B. Pull the pinna down and back
C. Pull the pinna straight back
D. Hold the pinna forward
Rationale: For children under age 3, the ear canal is straightened by
pulling the pinna down and back; for adults, it is up and back.
12. When documenting a patient’s liquid stool, the nurse notes
it is black and tarry. What is the clinical term for this finding?
A. Hematochezia
B. Steatorrhea
C. Melena
D. Occult blood
Rationale: Melena refers to black, tarry stools usually indicating
upper gastrointestinal bleeding where blood has been digested.
13. A patient is prescribed an enteric-coated medication. The
patient has difficulty swallowing. What should the nurse do?

, A. Crush the tablet and mix it with applesauce.
B. Dissolve the tablet in warm water.
C. Contact the provider for an alternative form of the
medication.
D. Encourage the patient to chew the tablet thoroughly.
Rationale: Enteric-coated medications must not be crushed or
chewed because they are designed to dissolve in the small intestine;
crushing them leads to stomach irritation or premature absorption.
14. A nurse is caring for a patient with urinary retention.
Which non-invasive assessment should the nurse perform
first?
A. Insert a Foley catheter.
B. Perform a bladder scan.
C. Obtain a clean-catch urine sample.
D. Palpate the symphysis pubis.
Rationale: A bladder scan is the priority non-invasive diagnostic tool
to quantify the volume of urine remaining in the bladder.
15. Which of the following is a primary sign of a fecal
impaction?
A. Large, soft, formed stools
B. Seepage of liquid stool around a hard mass
C. Increased flatulence
D. Absence of bowel sounds in all quadrants
Rationale: In fecal impaction, liquid stool from higher in the colon
leaks around the hardened, impacted mass, which can be mistaken for
diarrhea.
16. Which nursing intervention is most effective in preventing
catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTIs)?
A. Cleaning the urinary meatus with antiseptic daily
B. Keeping the drainage bag at the level of the bladder
C. Maintaining a sterile closed drainage system
D. Encouraging the patient to drink only caffeinated fluids
Rationale: Maintaining a closed system prevents the entry of
bacteria into the urinary tract; the bag must always remain below the
level of the bladder.
17. A nurse is administering a sublingual medication. Where
should the medication be placed?
A. Between the cheek and the gum

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