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NSG 3850 Exam 1 Pathophysiology II Prep 2026 | 200 Practice Questions with Answers & Rationales | Nursing Study Guide

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This exam pack contains 200 multiple-choice questions covering key Pathophysiology II concepts commonly assessed in NSG 3850 Exam 1, including altered body systems, disease mechanisms, immune responses, endocrine disorders, cardiovascular dysfunction, respiratory conditions, renal imbalances, and clinical manifestations. The questions are designed to reflect nursing program standards with scenario-based items, accurate answers, and concise rationales for effective exam preparation.

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NSG 3850 Exam 1 Pathophysiology II Prep 2026 | 200
Practice Questions with Answers & Rationales | Nursing
Study Guide

Section 1: Cardiovascular Pathophysiology (Questions 1–30)



1. A patient with chronic hypertension develops left ventricular hypertrophy. This is an example of:

A) Metaplasia

B) Dysplasia

C) Hyperplasia

D) Hypertrophy



Answer: D

Explanation: Hypertrophy is an increase in cell size, leading to enlargement of the heart muscle in
response to increased afterload. Hyperplasia is an increase in cell number.



2. True or False: Aortic stenosis causes pressure overload of the left ventricle.

Answer: True

Explanation: Aortic stenosis increases resistance to ejection, causing left ventricular pressure overload
and concentric hypertrophy.



3. Which of the following is a hallmark of heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF)?

A) Left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) <40%

B) Preserved LVEF (>50%)

C) Normal brain natriuretic peptide (BNP)

D) Isolated diastolic dysfunction



Answer: A

,Explanation: HFrEF is defined by LVEF ≤40%. HFpEF (preserved ejection fraction) has LVEF ≥50% with
diastolic dysfunction.



4. True or False: BNP is released from ventricular myocytes in response to increased wall tension.

Answer: True

Explanation: BNP (B‑type natriuretic peptide) is a biomarker for heart failure; elevated levels indicate
ventricular stretch.



5. The most common cause of right‑sided heart failure is:

A) Left‑sided heart failure

B) Pulmonary hypertension

C) Cor pulmonale

D) Myocardial infarction



Answer: A

Explanation: Left‑sided heart failure leads to pulmonary congestion and increased afterload on the right
ventricle, eventually causing right‑sided failure.



6. True or False: Jugular venous distention (JVD) is a sign of right‑sided heart failure.

Answer: True

Explanation: Right‑sided failure causes systemic venous congestion, leading to JVD, hepatomegaly,
ascites, and peripheral edema.



7. A patient with acute myocardial infarction develops a new systolic murmur. Which complication is
most likely?

A) Cardiac tamponade

B) Ventricular septal rupture

C) Papillary muscle rupture

D) Free wall rupture

,Answer: C

Explanation: Papillary muscle rupture causes acute mitral regurgitation, producing a holosystolic
murmur. Ventricular septal rupture causes a harsh holosystolic murmur and thrill.



8. True or False: Unstable angina is characterized by elevated cardiac troponin levels.

Answer: False

Explanation: Unstable angina is defined by ischemic symptoms without elevated biomarkers of
myocardial necrosis. Non‑ST‑elevation MI (NSTEMI) has elevated troponin.



9. Which of the following ECG findings is diagnostic of ST‑elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI)?

A) ST‑segment depression

B) T‑wave inversion

C) ST‑segment elevation in two contiguous leads

D) Pathologic Q waves only



Answer: C

Explanation: STEMI is defined by new ST‑segment elevation at the J point in two contiguous leads. Q
waves may develop later.



10. True or False: Atherosclerosis begins with endothelial injury and accumulation of low‑density
lipoproteins (LDL).

Answer: True

Explanation: The response‑to‑injury hypothesis describes endothelial damage, LDL deposition,
oxidation, and recruitment of monocytes/macrophages.



11. Which of the following is a risk factor for venous thromboembolism (VTE)?

A) Immobilization

B) Active cancer

C) Recent surgery

D) All of the above

, Answer: D

Explanation: Virchow’s triad (venous stasis, hypercoagulability, endothelial injury) includes all these risk
factors.



12. True or False: Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) of the lower extremity most commonly originates in the
calf veins.

Answer: True

Explanation: DVTs often start in the calf veins; proximal DVTs (popliteal, femoral, iliac) have higher risk
of pulmonary embolism.



13. The hallmark of cardiac tamponade is:

A) Narrowed pulse pressure and pulsus paradoxus

B) Widened pulse pressure

C) Bounding pulses

D) Hypertension



Answer: A

Explanation: Cardiac tamponade presents with hypotension, distended neck veins, muffled heart sounds
(Beck’s triad), and pulsus paradoxus (exaggerated drop in systolic BP during inspiration).



14. True or False: Pericarditis often causes a friction rub that is best heard with the patient leaning
forward.

Answer: True

Explanation: Pericardial friction rub is a scratchy, high‑pitched sound; leaning forward and holding
expiration may enhance it.



15. Infective endocarditis most commonly affects:

A) The tricuspid valve

B) The aortic valve

C) The mitral valve

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