Maternal & Child Nursing CJE Exam Prep 2026 | 200 Practice
Questions with Answers & Rationales | Study Guide
Question Types: True/False (TF) & Multiple Choice (MC)
Total Questions: 200
Primary Focus: Antepartum Care, Intrapartum Care, Postpartum Care, Newborn Assessment, High‑Risk
Pregnancy, NCLEX‑Style Clinical Judgment
Spring 2026 — 100% Correct Answers with Explanation
Section 1: Antepartum & Maternal Health (Questions 1–25)
1. A pregnant client at 10 weeks’ gestation reports severe nausea and vomiting, weight loss, and ketones
in the urine. Which prescription should the nurse question?
A. NPO with IV lactated Ringer’s
B. Ondansetron IV as prescribed
C. Promethazine IM as prescribed
D. Discharge home with oral fluids and crackers
Answer: D
Explanation: Discharge home with oral fluids is inappropriate for a client with hyperemesis gravidarum
who has ketones and weight loss. IV fluids and antiemetics are necessary. Discharging her with oral fluids
could lead to continued dehydration and electrolyte imbalance.
2. A client at 38 weeks’ gestation reports a sudden gush of fluid from the vagina. Which is the priority
nursing action?
A. Check fetal heart rate
B. Test fluid with nitrazine paper
C. Inspect perineum for crowning
D. Ask when she last voided
,Answer: A
Explanation: Priority is to assess fetal well‑being. A sudden gush of fluid may be accompanied by
umbilical cord prolapse, which compromises fetal oxygenation. FHR assessment must be done
immediately.
3. A client at 32 weeks’ gestation has painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. Which condition does the
nurse suspect?
A. Placenta previa
B. Abruptio placentae
C. Threatened abortion
D. Ectopic pregnancy
Answer: A
Explanation: Painless bright red bleeding in the third trimester is the classic presentation of placenta
previa. Abruptio placentae typically presents with painful dark bleeding.
4. A client is diagnosed with gestational hypertension and is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which finding
would the nurse interpret as indicating a therapeutic level of medication?
A. Urinary output of 20 mL per hour
B. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths/minute
C. Deep tendon reflexes 2+
D. Difficulty in arousing
Answer: C
Explanation: With magnesium sulfate, deep tendon reflexes of 2+ are normal and indicate a therapeutic
level. Urinary output <30 mL/hr, respiratory rate <12, and diminished arousal indicate magnesium
toxicity.
5. A nurse is teaching a client about non‑stress tests (NST). Which statement indicates understanding?
A. “This test measures how strong my contractions are.”
,B. “This test checks how my baby’s heart rate responds to movement.”
C. “This test will tell me the baby’s lung maturity.”
D. “This test is done only during active labor.”
Answer: B
Explanation: NST assesses fetal well‑being by observing fetal heart rate accelerations in response to fetal
movement. It does not measure contractions, lung maturity, or require active labor.
6. A client at 36 weeks’ gestation with preeclampsia has a BP of 168/110, 3+ proteinuria, and complaints
of headache and visual changes. Which medication does the nurse anticipate?
A. Terbutaline
B. Magnesium sulfate
C. Oxytocin
D. Betamethasone
Answer: B
Explanation: Severe preeclampsia with neurological symptoms requires magnesium sulfate for seizure
prophylaxis. Terbutaline is a tocolytic, oxytocin induces labor, and betamethasone promotes fetal lung
maturity.
7. The nurse is developing a plan of care for a woman who is pregnant with twins. The nurse includes
interventions focusing on which of the following because of the woman’s increased risk?
A. Oligohydramnios
B. Preeclampsia
C. Post‑term labor
D. Chorioamnionitis
Answer: B
Explanation: Multiple gestations are at high risk for preeclampsia, preterm labor, hydramnios,
hyperemesis gravidarum, anemia, and antepartal hemorrhage. Preeclampsia is a major concern
requiring close monitoring.
, 8. A client with a new diagnosis of polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) asks the nurse which laboratory
values should be monitored. Which response is correct?
A. Liver function tests
B. Blood urea nitrogen
C. Glucose and lipid levels
D. Complete blood count
Answer: C
Explanation: PCOS is associated with insulin resistance and dyslipidemia. Monitoring glucose (fasting,
glucose tolerance) and lipid levels is essential. Liver and kidney tests are not primary for PCOS.
9. A pregnant woman asks the nurse, “How much alcohol is safe to drink during pregnancy?” What is the
best response?
A. “Up to one drink per day is considered safe.”
B. “There is no known safe amount; avoid alcohol entirely.”
C. “Occasional wine is acceptable after the first trimester.”
D. “Beer is safer than hard liquor.”
Answer: B
Explanation: No amount of alcohol has been proven safe during pregnancy. Fetal alcohol syndrome can
occur with any amount, and abstinence is the only safe recommendation.
10. A 38‑year‑old pregnant woman is 30 weeks’ gestation. Her age places her at increased risk for which
condition?
A. Gestational diabetes
B. Placenta previa
C. Chromosomal abnormalities
D. All of the above
Questions with Answers & Rationales | Study Guide
Question Types: True/False (TF) & Multiple Choice (MC)
Total Questions: 200
Primary Focus: Antepartum Care, Intrapartum Care, Postpartum Care, Newborn Assessment, High‑Risk
Pregnancy, NCLEX‑Style Clinical Judgment
Spring 2026 — 100% Correct Answers with Explanation
Section 1: Antepartum & Maternal Health (Questions 1–25)
1. A pregnant client at 10 weeks’ gestation reports severe nausea and vomiting, weight loss, and ketones
in the urine. Which prescription should the nurse question?
A. NPO with IV lactated Ringer’s
B. Ondansetron IV as prescribed
C. Promethazine IM as prescribed
D. Discharge home with oral fluids and crackers
Answer: D
Explanation: Discharge home with oral fluids is inappropriate for a client with hyperemesis gravidarum
who has ketones and weight loss. IV fluids and antiemetics are necessary. Discharging her with oral fluids
could lead to continued dehydration and electrolyte imbalance.
2. A client at 38 weeks’ gestation reports a sudden gush of fluid from the vagina. Which is the priority
nursing action?
A. Check fetal heart rate
B. Test fluid with nitrazine paper
C. Inspect perineum for crowning
D. Ask when she last voided
,Answer: A
Explanation: Priority is to assess fetal well‑being. A sudden gush of fluid may be accompanied by
umbilical cord prolapse, which compromises fetal oxygenation. FHR assessment must be done
immediately.
3. A client at 32 weeks’ gestation has painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. Which condition does the
nurse suspect?
A. Placenta previa
B. Abruptio placentae
C. Threatened abortion
D. Ectopic pregnancy
Answer: A
Explanation: Painless bright red bleeding in the third trimester is the classic presentation of placenta
previa. Abruptio placentae typically presents with painful dark bleeding.
4. A client is diagnosed with gestational hypertension and is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which finding
would the nurse interpret as indicating a therapeutic level of medication?
A. Urinary output of 20 mL per hour
B. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths/minute
C. Deep tendon reflexes 2+
D. Difficulty in arousing
Answer: C
Explanation: With magnesium sulfate, deep tendon reflexes of 2+ are normal and indicate a therapeutic
level. Urinary output <30 mL/hr, respiratory rate <12, and diminished arousal indicate magnesium
toxicity.
5. A nurse is teaching a client about non‑stress tests (NST). Which statement indicates understanding?
A. “This test measures how strong my contractions are.”
,B. “This test checks how my baby’s heart rate responds to movement.”
C. “This test will tell me the baby’s lung maturity.”
D. “This test is done only during active labor.”
Answer: B
Explanation: NST assesses fetal well‑being by observing fetal heart rate accelerations in response to fetal
movement. It does not measure contractions, lung maturity, or require active labor.
6. A client at 36 weeks’ gestation with preeclampsia has a BP of 168/110, 3+ proteinuria, and complaints
of headache and visual changes. Which medication does the nurse anticipate?
A. Terbutaline
B. Magnesium sulfate
C. Oxytocin
D. Betamethasone
Answer: B
Explanation: Severe preeclampsia with neurological symptoms requires magnesium sulfate for seizure
prophylaxis. Terbutaline is a tocolytic, oxytocin induces labor, and betamethasone promotes fetal lung
maturity.
7. The nurse is developing a plan of care for a woman who is pregnant with twins. The nurse includes
interventions focusing on which of the following because of the woman’s increased risk?
A. Oligohydramnios
B. Preeclampsia
C. Post‑term labor
D. Chorioamnionitis
Answer: B
Explanation: Multiple gestations are at high risk for preeclampsia, preterm labor, hydramnios,
hyperemesis gravidarum, anemia, and antepartal hemorrhage. Preeclampsia is a major concern
requiring close monitoring.
, 8. A client with a new diagnosis of polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) asks the nurse which laboratory
values should be monitored. Which response is correct?
A. Liver function tests
B. Blood urea nitrogen
C. Glucose and lipid levels
D. Complete blood count
Answer: C
Explanation: PCOS is associated with insulin resistance and dyslipidemia. Monitoring glucose (fasting,
glucose tolerance) and lipid levels is essential. Liver and kidney tests are not primary for PCOS.
9. A pregnant woman asks the nurse, “How much alcohol is safe to drink during pregnancy?” What is the
best response?
A. “Up to one drink per day is considered safe.”
B. “There is no known safe amount; avoid alcohol entirely.”
C. “Occasional wine is acceptable after the first trimester.”
D. “Beer is safer than hard liquor.”
Answer: B
Explanation: No amount of alcohol has been proven safe during pregnancy. Fetal alcohol syndrome can
occur with any amount, and abstinence is the only safe recommendation.
10. A 38‑year‑old pregnant woman is 30 weeks’ gestation. Her age places her at increased risk for which
condition?
A. Gestational diabetes
B. Placenta previa
C. Chromosomal abnormalities
D. All of the above
