NUR 282 Advanced Clinical / Transition Nursing Week 7 Quiz 2026
|Galen College
1. A nurse is delegating tasks to a Licensed Practical Nurse (LPN). Which of the
following tasks is most appropriate for the LPN to perform?
A. Developing the initial nursing care plan for a new admission.
B. Administering an intravenous bolus dose of a high-risk medication.
C. Conducting the discharge teaching for a patient with a new colostomy.
D. Performing a sterile dressing change on a post-operative wound.
Answer: D
Rationale: LPNs can perform sterile procedures and dressing changes. Planning care, IV
bolus medications, and initial teaching are generally roles of the RN.
2. The nurse is prioritizing care for four patients. Which patient should the nurse
assess first?
A. A patient with a history of heart failure who has 2+ pitting edema in the lower extremities.
B. A patient with pneumonia who has an oxygen saturation of 89% on room air.
C. A patient 2 hours post-laparoscopy complaining of shoulder pain.
D. A patient with a fractured femur who reports sudden chest pain and shortness of breath.
Answer: D
Rationale: Sudden chest pain and shortness of breath in a patient with a long bone fracture
suggests a fat embolism, which is a life-threatening emergency.
,3. A patient’s ABG results are: pH 7.28, PaCO2 55 mm Hg, and HCO3 25 mEq/L.
How should the nurse interpret these results?
A. Respiratory Acidosis
B. Metabolic Alkalosis
C. Respiratory Alkalosis
D. Metabolic Acidosis
Answer: A
Rationale: The pH is low (acidosis) and the PaCO2 is high (respiratory cause), while the
HCO3 is within normal range.
4. Which ethical principle is the nurse upholding when they support a patient’s
decision to refuse chemotherapy despite the family’s wishes?
A. Justice
B. Autonomy
C. Beneficence
D. Nonmaleficence
Answer: B
Rationale: Autonomy refers to the right of the patient to make their own healthcare
decisions.
5. A nurse is caring for a patient in the compensatory stage of shock. Which
finding should the nurse expect?
A. Hypotension and bradycardia
B. Decreased respiratory rate and lethargy
C. Anuria and metabolic alkalosis
D. Increased heart rate and cool, clammy skin
Answer: D
Rationale: In the compensatory stage of shock, the body attempts to maintain perfusion
via the sympathetic nervous system, leading to tachycardia and vasoconstriction.
, 6. When evaluating a patient for Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome
(SIRS), which criteria must be met?
A. The presence of multi-organ failure.
B. A positive blood culture for Gram-negative bacteria.
C. Two or more specific clinical manifestations like fever, tachycardia, or increased WBC count.
D. A mean arterial pressure (MAP) below 60 mm Hg.
Answer: C
Rationale: SIRS is defined by having two or more criteria including temperature
alterations, heart rate >90, respiratory rate >20, or abnormal WBC count.
7. A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) has a serum potassium level of
6.8 mEq/L. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering first?
A. Intravenous Calcium Gluconate
B. Oral Spironolactone
C. Subcutaneous Heparin
D. Oral Furosemide
Answer: A
Rationale: Calcium gluconate is administered first to stabilize the cardiac membrane and
prevent life-threatening dysrhythmias caused by hyperkalemia.
8. The nurse observes a patient’s EKG monitor and sees a sawtooth pattern.
Which rhythm is the patient likely experiencing?
A. Atrial Fibrillation
B. Ventricular Tachycardia
C. Atrial Flutter
D. First-degree AV Block
Answer: C
Rationale: Atrial flutter is characterized by a classic ‘sawtooth’ pattern of P-waves (F-
waves).
|Galen College
1. A nurse is delegating tasks to a Licensed Practical Nurse (LPN). Which of the
following tasks is most appropriate for the LPN to perform?
A. Developing the initial nursing care plan for a new admission.
B. Administering an intravenous bolus dose of a high-risk medication.
C. Conducting the discharge teaching for a patient with a new colostomy.
D. Performing a sterile dressing change on a post-operative wound.
Answer: D
Rationale: LPNs can perform sterile procedures and dressing changes. Planning care, IV
bolus medications, and initial teaching are generally roles of the RN.
2. The nurse is prioritizing care for four patients. Which patient should the nurse
assess first?
A. A patient with a history of heart failure who has 2+ pitting edema in the lower extremities.
B. A patient with pneumonia who has an oxygen saturation of 89% on room air.
C. A patient 2 hours post-laparoscopy complaining of shoulder pain.
D. A patient with a fractured femur who reports sudden chest pain and shortness of breath.
Answer: D
Rationale: Sudden chest pain and shortness of breath in a patient with a long bone fracture
suggests a fat embolism, which is a life-threatening emergency.
,3. A patient’s ABG results are: pH 7.28, PaCO2 55 mm Hg, and HCO3 25 mEq/L.
How should the nurse interpret these results?
A. Respiratory Acidosis
B. Metabolic Alkalosis
C. Respiratory Alkalosis
D. Metabolic Acidosis
Answer: A
Rationale: The pH is low (acidosis) and the PaCO2 is high (respiratory cause), while the
HCO3 is within normal range.
4. Which ethical principle is the nurse upholding when they support a patient’s
decision to refuse chemotherapy despite the family’s wishes?
A. Justice
B. Autonomy
C. Beneficence
D. Nonmaleficence
Answer: B
Rationale: Autonomy refers to the right of the patient to make their own healthcare
decisions.
5. A nurse is caring for a patient in the compensatory stage of shock. Which
finding should the nurse expect?
A. Hypotension and bradycardia
B. Decreased respiratory rate and lethargy
C. Anuria and metabolic alkalosis
D. Increased heart rate and cool, clammy skin
Answer: D
Rationale: In the compensatory stage of shock, the body attempts to maintain perfusion
via the sympathetic nervous system, leading to tachycardia and vasoconstriction.
, 6. When evaluating a patient for Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome
(SIRS), which criteria must be met?
A. The presence of multi-organ failure.
B. A positive blood culture for Gram-negative bacteria.
C. Two or more specific clinical manifestations like fever, tachycardia, or increased WBC count.
D. A mean arterial pressure (MAP) below 60 mm Hg.
Answer: C
Rationale: SIRS is defined by having two or more criteria including temperature
alterations, heart rate >90, respiratory rate >20, or abnormal WBC count.
7. A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) has a serum potassium level of
6.8 mEq/L. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering first?
A. Intravenous Calcium Gluconate
B. Oral Spironolactone
C. Subcutaneous Heparin
D. Oral Furosemide
Answer: A
Rationale: Calcium gluconate is administered first to stabilize the cardiac membrane and
prevent life-threatening dysrhythmias caused by hyperkalemia.
8. The nurse observes a patient’s EKG monitor and sees a sawtooth pattern.
Which rhythm is the patient likely experiencing?
A. Atrial Fibrillation
B. Ventricular Tachycardia
C. Atrial Flutter
D. First-degree AV Block
Answer: C
Rationale: Atrial flutter is characterized by a classic ‘sawtooth’ pattern of P-waves (F-
waves).
