BSN HESI 266 Med Surg Exam (Latest 2026 / 2027) Questions & Correct Answers With Rationales, 100% Guaranteed Pass || Complete A+ Guide - Nightingale

BSN HESI 266
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BSN HESI 266 Med Surg Exam (Latest ) Questions &
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e Correct Answers With Rationales, 100% Guaranteed Pass ||
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e Complete A+ Guide - Nightingale
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,BSN HESI 266 Med Surg Exam (Latest ) Questions &
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Correct Answers With Rationales, 100% Guaranteed Pass || Complete
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A+ Guide - Nightingale
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Page 1 e




Question 1 e




A 78 year old male visits his primary healthcare provider reporting an increase in
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e urinary urgency and frequency. The nurse recognizes that the client has
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e incontinence which may be caused by benign prostate hyperplasia (BPH).
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Correct Answer: Overflow e e




Rationale: BPH causes bladder outlet obstruction, leading to urinary retention,
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which then causes overflow incontinence (leakage when bladder is
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e overdistended). Stress incontinence is from weak pelvic floor muscles, urge from
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e detrusor overactivity, functional from mobility issues.
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Page 2 e




Question 2 e




Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching plan of a
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e client who has started treatment for newly diagnosed diabetes insipidus?
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A. Weigh yourself every day at the same time
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B. Check your blood sugar prior to each meal
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C. Keep legs elevated to reduce swelling
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D. Restrict fluids to half the volume of urine output
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Correct Answer: A. Weigh yourself every day at the same time
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,Rationale: Daily weight helps monitor fluid balance. Diabetes insipidus
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e causes excessive urination and thirst; fluid restriction is dangerous. Blood
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e sugar monitoring is for diabetes mellitus, not insipidus.
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Question 3 e




One hour after major abdominal surgery a client in the PACU has BP 136/80.
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Fifteen minutes later it is 114/72. Which action should the nurse take first?
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A. Increase frequency of BP assessmentse e e e




B. Encourage the client to breathe deeply e e e e e




C. Check abdominal surgical dressing
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D. Review the client's baseline BP trends
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Correct Answer: C. Check the abdominal surgical dressing
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Rationale: A sudden drop in BP post-abdominal surgery suggests possible internal
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bleeding. The nurse should first check the dressing for bleeding, then increase
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e monitoring and review baseline. e e e




Page 3 e




Question 4 (NGN, 36 y/o female) e e e e e




Which findings indicate that the client is adhering to the treatment plan? (SATA)
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A. Complete blood count e e




B. Subjective report from client e e e




C. Vital signs e




D. Body mass index e e




E. Record of medication administration
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F. Physical assessment e




G. Meal diary e




Correct Answers: B, E, G
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, Rationale: Adherence is best shown by client's own report (B), medication records
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e (E), and meal diary (G). Lab values and vitals show outcomes, not adherence
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Page 4 e




Question 5 e




A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus reports blood glucose 180-210 upon
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e waking, plus increased disturbing dreams and diaphoresis during the night.
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e Which instruction should the nurse include?
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A. Check blood glucose during the night
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B. Have glucose monitor recalibrated
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C. Eat a high carbohydrate snack before bed
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D. Report to clinic for fasting serum glucose
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Correct Answer: A. Check blood glucose during the night
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Rationale: Symptoms suggest nocturnal hypoglycemia with rebound
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hyperglycemia (Somogyi effect). Nighttime glucose checks will confirm.
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Question 6 e




An adult woman with primary Raynaud's phenomenon develops pallor then
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e cyanosis of fingers. After warming, fingers turn red and client reports burning
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e sensation. What action should the nurse take?
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A. Report to HCP as soon as possible e e e e e e




B. Continue to monitor until color returns to normal
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C. Secure pulse oximeter e e




D. Apply cool compress for 20 minutes
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Correct Answer: B. Continue to monitor until color returns to normal
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