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NUR 445 Final Exam 2026/2027 | Critical Care Nursing | 300 Questions With Correct Answers & Rationales | Hemodynamics, Shock, ARDS, MODS, Burns | A+ Grade Guaranteed

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Pass the NUR 445 Final Exam on your first attempt with this comprehensive critical care nursing question bank. This document contains 300 actual exam-style questions with verified answers and detailed rationales covering all essential critical care nursing concepts for the 2026/2027 academic year. What's included: 300 questions mirroring the format and difficulty of the actual NUR 445 Final Exam Detailed rationales explaining the "why" behind every answer Latest 2026/2027 updates reflecting current critical care guidelines (Surviving Sepsis Campaign, ARDS Berlin criteria, AHA/ACC guidelines) Covers all exam domains – Hemodynamics, Shock States, Respiratory Critical Care, Cardiac Critical Care, Neurologic Critical Care, Renal & Endocrine, Sepsis, MODS, Burns, Ethics & End-of-Life Topics covered: Hemodynamics & Shock States (Questions 1-40) Cardiac output (normal 4-8 L/min), cardiac index (normal 2.5-4.0 L/min/m²) Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) – low in distributive shock, high in hypovolemic/cardiogenic shock Central venous pressure (CVP normal 2-6 mm Hg), pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP normal 4-12 mm Hg) Mixed venous oxygen saturation (SvO₂ normal 60-80%), lactate (normal 2.0 mmol/L) Mean arterial pressure (MAP) goal 65 mm Hg, MAP calculation Septic shock (norepinephrine first-line vasopressor, fluids, antibiotics within 1 hour) Cardiogenic shock (dobutamine, milrinone, decreased CO, increased SVR) Hypovolemic shock (decreased CVP, decreased urine output, fluid resuscitation with Lactated Ringer's) Neurogenic shock (hypotension, bradycardia, warm dry skin below injury) Anaphylactic shock (epinephrine first-line, stridor, wheezing) Obstructive shock (tension pneumothorax – needle decompression; cardiac tamponade – pericardiocentesis) Vasopressor extravasation (phentolamine, tissue necrosis) Respiratory Critical Care (Questions 41-80) ARDS (Berlin criteria: P/F ratio 300, bilateral opacities, not fully explained by cardiac failure) P/F ratio calculation (PaO₂/FiO₂) – 200 moderate, 100 severe Low tidal volume ventilation (4-8 mL/kg IBW) to prevent ventilator-induced lung injury Permissive hypercapnia, high PEEP, prone positioning Status asthmaticus (auto-PEEP, prolonged expiratory time, high plateau pressure) COPD mechanical ventilation (auto-PEEP, extrinsic PEEP matching) Ventilator alarms (high pressure – kinked tube, biting, secretions; low pressure – disconnection) ABG interpretation (respiratory acidosis/alkalosis, PaCO₂, pH) Endotracheal suctioning (limit 10 seconds, no normal saline instillation) Tracheostomy care (inner cannula cleaning q8h, cuff pressure 20-30 cm H₂O, periodic deflation) Chest tubes (water seal chamber – tidaling normal, continuous bubbling = air leak, 100 mL/hour bright red blood = bleeding) Tension pneumothorax (tracheal deviation, needle decompression) Pulmonary embolism (massive PE with hypotension – thrombolytics) Cardiac Critical Care (Questions 81-120) Acute coronary syndrome (STEMI – emergent PCI 90 min or thrombolytics 30 min; NSTEMI – urgent PCI 24 hours) Troponin (most specific marker for myocardial necrosis) Ventricular fibrillation/pulseless VT – defibrillation priority Unstable VT with pulse – synchronized cardioversion Stable monomorphic VT – amiodarone or lidocaine Cardiac catheterization post-op care (hematoma, distal pulses, retroperitoneal bleeding) Temporary pacemaker (demand mode, failure to capture, failure to sense) Left ventricular assist device (LVAD) – continuous non-pulsatile flow, MAP goal 60 mm Hg, low-flow alarm check driveline Post-cardiac arrest care (targeted temperature management 32-36°C, MAP 65 mm Hg, SpO₂ 94-99%, treat seizures) Acute decompensated heart failure (high Fowler's position, furosemide, nitroglycerin, dobutamine, milrinone) Digoxin toxicity (nausea, vomiting, yellow-green halos, bradycardia) Cardiogenic shock (emergent PCI, IABP, vasopressors) Neurologic Critical Care (Questions 121-160) Increased intracranial pressure (normal ICP 0-15 mm Hg, 20 requires intervention) Cushing's triad (hypertension, bradycardia, irregular respirations) – late sign of herniation Earliest sign of increased ICP – change in level of consciousness Mannitol (osmotic diuretic, draws fluid from brain, monitor for hypovolemia) Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS ≤8 = severe TBI/intubation, 9-12 = moderate, 13-15 = mild) Epidural hematoma (lucid interval, arterial bleeding, surgical emergency) Subdural hematoma (gradual decline, venous bleeding, anticoagulated elderly) Subarachnoid hemorrhage (thunderclap headache, nimodipine for vasospasm) Ischemic stroke (tPA within 3-4.5 hours, BP 185/110 before tPA, left vs. right hemisphere symptoms) Dysphagia after stroke (speech therapy swallow evaluation) Status epilepticus (benzodiazepine first-line, second-line fosphenytoin/levetiracetam) Myasthenia gravis crisis (edrophonium test, intubation) Guillain-Barré syndrome (ascending paralysis, monitor respiratory function) Spinal cord injury (C5 – respiratory compromise; T6 – autonomic dysreflexia from bladder distention) Neurogenic shock (hypotension, bradycardia) vs. spinal shock (flaccid paralysis, areflexia) Renal & Endocrine Critical Care (Questions 161-200) Acute kidney injury (oliguria 30 mL/hour, rising creatinine, hyperkalemia management) Hyperkalemia (calcium gluconate stabilizes membrane, insulin/dextrose shifts K⁺, albuterol, kayexalate, emergent hemodialysis) Oliguric phase (fluid restriction, potassium restriction, phosphorus restriction) Diuretic phase (hypokalemia, hyponatremia, hypovolemia) CRRT (continuous renal replacement therapy – monitor hypotension, bleeding, electrolytes) AV fistula assessment (thrill, bruit – patency; absence = thrombosis) Diabetic ketoacidosis (IV fluids first, then insulin, potassium replacement when K⁺ 5.0, anion gap) Hyperglycemic hyperosmolar state (IV fluids first, insulin after fluids, severe dehydration) Thyroid storm (hyperthermia, tachycardia, PTU, propranolol, corticosteroids) Myxedema coma (hypothermia, bradycardia, IV levothyroxine, passive rewarming) Adrenal crisis (hypoglycemia, hypotension, IV hydrocortisone, IV fluids) Pheochromocytoma (episodic hypertension, headache, palpitations, diaphoresis) SIADH (hyponatremia, fluid overload, 3% saline for severe) Diabetes insipidus (hypernatremia, dilute urine, desmopressin) Acute pancreatitis (hypocalcemia from saponification, hyperglycemia, Cullen sign, Turner sign, meperidine not recommended) Infectious Disease & Sepsis (Questions 201-240) Surviving Sepsis Campaign (blood cultures before antibiotics within 1 hour, lactate 2.0) Septic shock (fluids 30 mL/kg, then norepinephrine, ScvO₂ goal 70%, hemoglobin 7 transfuse) DIC (disseminated intravascular coagulation – bleeding and thrombosis, low platelets, low fibrinogen, elevated D-dimer, PT/INR) Purpura fulminans (meningococcal sepsis) Source control (remove central line for CLABSI, drain abscess, debride wound) MRSA (vancomycin, linezolid, daptomycin) Candidemia (echinocandins or fluconazole) C. difficile (oral vancomycin, fidaxomicin, metronidazole) Multisystem Organ Failure & Burns (Questions 241-270) MODS (multiple organ dysfunction syndrome – respiratory failure first, then cardiovascular, renal, hepatic, hematologic) Liver failure (hypoglycemia, coagulopathy, hepatic encephalopathy – lactulose, rifaximin) DIC management (treat underlying cause, blood products) Burns – emergent phase (first 24-48 hours): fluid resuscitation priority (Parkland formula), hyperkalemia from cell lysis, carbon monoxide poisoning (100% oxygen), inhalation injury (early intubation) Curling's ulcer (stress ulcer prophylaxis with H₂ blockers/PPIs) Circumferential burns (escharotomy for chest or extremity compartment syndrome) Burn wound infections (Pseudomonas – silver sulfadiazine, ciprofloxacin/ceftazidime; MRSA – vancomycin) Ethics & End-of-Life Care in the ICU (Questions 271-300) Brain death (irreversible cessation of all brain function including brainstem, legal death) Organ donation (refer to OPO, brain death or DCD) DNR/DNI (DNR ≠ do not treat – provide comfort measures and treat reversible causes) Withdrawal of life support (comfort measures: opioids for pain, benzodiazepines for anxiety, oral care, positioning) Principle of double effect (pain management may hasten death but intent is to relieve suffering) Death rattle (reposition, anticholinergics – glycopyrrolate, scopolamine; avoid suctioning) Advance directives (honor patient's wishes; ethics committee if conflict) Palliative sedation (for refractory symptoms) Moral distress (seek support from colleagues, supervisor, chaplain) Perfect for: NUR 445 Critical Care Nursing students RN-to-BSN students in critical care courses New graduate nurses preparing for critical care orientation NCLEX-RN candidates reviewing critical care content Critical care certification (CCRN) candidates Why choose this guide: 300 questions with the same format as the actual NUR 445 Final Exam Verified answers based on current critical care guidelines (AHA, Surviving Sepsis Campaign, ARDSnet) Detailed rationales that teach the clinical reasoning High-yield topics identified for efficient studying All domains covered in one complete document Immediate download – study on your schedule Guaranteed to help you pass NUR 445 Final Exam!

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NUR 445 Final Exam – Comprehensive
Study Bank Critical Care Nursing | Complex
Health Systems | High-Acuity Patient
Management Arizona College | 2026/2027
Academic Year

Section 1: Hemodynamics & Shock States (Questions 1-40)
1. A patient in the ICU has a pulmonary artery catheter. The nurse notes a
cardiac output of 2.5 L/min (normal 4-8 L/min). This indicates:
A) Increased cardiac output
B) Decreased cardiac output
C) Normal cardiac output
D) Increased preload
Answer: B – Normal cardiac output is 4-8 L/min. A value of 2.5 L/min
indicates decreased cardiac output (low flow state), which may be seen in
cardiogenic shock.
2. The nurse is caring for a patient with a pulmonary artery catheter. The
cardiac index is 1.8 L/min/m² (normal 2.5-4.0). This finding indicates:
A) Adequate tissue perfusion
B) Inadequate tissue perfusion
C) Normal cardiac function
D) Increased oxygen delivery
Answer: B – Cardiac index (CI) normalizes cardiac output to body surface
area. A CI <2.2 L/min/m² indicates inadequate tissue perfusion (low flow
state).

,3. A patient in shock has a systemic vascular resistance (SVR) of 400
dyn·s·cm⁻⁵ (normal 800-1200). This indicates:
A) Vasoconstriction
B) Vasodilation
C) Normal vascular tone
D) Increased afterload
Answer: B – Low SVR indicates vasodilation, which is characteristic of
distributive shock (septic, anaphylactic, neurogenic). High SVR indicates
vasoconstriction (hypovolemic, cardiogenic shock).
4. A patient in shock has an SVR of 1,600 dyn·s·cm⁻⁵ (normal 800-1200). This
indicates:
A) Vasodilation
B) Vasoconstriction
C) Normal vascular tone
D) Decreased afterload
Answer: B – High SVR indicates vasoconstriction, which is characteristic of
hypovolemic and cardiogenic shock (compensatory vasoconstriction to
maintain BP).
5. A patient with septic shock has hypotension despite fluid resuscitation.
The nurse anticipates an order for:
A) Norepinephrine (Levophed)
B) Nitroglycerin
C) Furosemide (Lasix)
D) Metoprolol (Lopressor)

,Answer: A – Norepinephrine is the first-line vasopressor for septic shock. It
causes vasoconstriction (increases SVR) to raise blood pressure and improve
organ perfusion.
6. The nurse is caring for a patient with cardiogenic shock. Which finding is
most consistent with this diagnosis?
A) Warm, flushed skin
B) Decreased cardiac output and increased SVR
C) Decreased SVR and increased cardiac output
D) Bounding pulses
Answer: B – Cardiogenic shock is characterized by decreased cardiac output
(pump failure) and compensatory vasoconstriction (increased SVR). Skin is
cool and clammy (not warm and flushed).
7. A patient with septic shock has warm, flushed skin and bounding pulses.
This is due to:
A) Vasoconstriction
B) Vasodilation (distributive shock)
C) Decreased cardiac output
D) Increased SVR
Answer: B – Septic shock causes massive vasodilation (decreased SVR),
leading to warm, flushed skin, bounding pulses, and hypotension.
8. The nurse is assessing a patient with hypovolemic shock. Which finding is
expected?
A) Warm, flushed skin
B) Decreased urine output
C) Bounding pulses
D) Increased central venous pressure (CVP)

, Answer: B – Hypovolemic shock causes decreased preload (low CVP),
decreased urine output (due to decreased renal perfusion), cool clammy
skin, and tachycardia.
9. The central venous pressure (CVP) normal range is:
A) 0-2 mm Hg
B) 2-6 mm Hg
C) 8-12 mm Hg
D) 15-20 mm Hg
Answer: B – Normal CVP is 2-6 mm Hg (or 4-8 cm H₂O). Low CVP indicates
hypovolemia; high CVP indicates fluid overload or right heart failure.
10. A patient with a CVP of 14 mm Hg (normal 2-6) is likely experiencing:
A) Hypovolemia
B) Fluid overload or right heart failure
C) Normal fluid status
D) Dehydration
Answer: B – Elevated CVP indicates increased right atrial pressure, which
may be due to fluid overload, right ventricular failure, pulmonary
hypertension, or tricuspid regurgitation.
11. The pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) normal range is:
A) 2-6 mm Hg
B) 4-12 mm Hg
C) 15-25 mm Hg
D) 25-35 mm Hg
Answer: B – Normal PAWP is 4-12 mm Hg. Elevated PAWP (>15-18 mm Hg)
indicates left ventricular failure or volume overload.

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