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ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor 2026 Retake Exit Exam with NGN 100 Questions and 100% Correct Answers

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ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor 2026 Retake Exit Exam with NGN 100 Questions and 100% Correct Answers

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ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor 2026 Retake Exit Exam with NGN 100
Questions and 100% Correct Answers


Safety, Infection Control, & Delegation




Q1. A nurse is caring for a client with active tuberculosis. Which type of precautions should the
nurse implement?

• A. Droplet
• B. Contact
• C. Airborne
• D. Protective environment

Answer: C. Airborne
Rationale: Tuberculosis is transmitted via droplet nuclei that remain airborne. Airborne
precautions require an N95 respirator and negative-pressure room. Droplet is for flu/meningitis;
contact for MRSA/C. diff; protective for immunocompromised.


Q2. A nurse is delegating vital sign measurement to an assistive personnel (AP). Which client
should the nurse avoid delegating to the AP?

• A. Postoperative day 2 with stable vital signs
• B. Client with pneumonia requiring q4h temps
• C. Client receiving IV blood transfusion
• D. Client with new-onset chest pain

Answer: D. Client with new-onset chest pain
Rationale: New chest pain indicates potential instability. APs cannot assess or interpret findings;
the nurse must evaluate this client personally. Stable postoperative and routine monitoring are
appropriate for delegation.

,Q3. A nurse is preparing to insert an indwelling urinary catheter. Which action demonstrates
proper sterile technique?

• A. Opening the outer wrapper away from the body
• B. Using sterile gloves to open the inner package
• C. Maintaining a sterile field at waist level
• D. Pouring sterile solution onto a sterile field from a height of 10 inches

Answer: C. Maintaining a sterile field at waist level
Rationale: The sterile field must be kept above waist level to prevent contamination. Open outer
wrapper on a stable surface; use sterile gloves only after opening inner package; pour solution
from 4–6 inches, not 10 inches.


Q4. A charge nurse is assigning rooms for four clients. Which client requires a private room?

• A. Client with pneumonia (no isolation needed)
• B. Client with Clostridium difficile
• C. Client with active varicella (chickenpox)
• D. Client with a urinary tract infection

Answer: C. Active varicella (chickenpox)
Rationale: Varicella requires airborne and contact precautions and a private negative-pressure
room. C. diff needs contact but can be cohorted if same infection; pneumonia and UTI without
resistant organisms do not require private room.


Q5. A nurse observes an assistive personnel (AP) applying restraints to a client. Which action by
the AP requires immediate intervention?

• A. Applying padded wrist restraints
• B. Tying the restraint to the side rail
• C. Securing the restraint with a quick-release knot
• D. Placing two fingers between the restraint and the skin

Answer: B. Tying the restraint to the side rail
Rationale: Restraints must be tied to the bed frame (movable part of bed), not the side rail,
because side rails can lower and cause injury or strangulation. Padded restraints, quick-release
knots, and two-finger check are correct.

,Q6. A nurse is caring for a client on contact precautions. Which personal protective equipment
(PPE) must the nurse don before entering the room?

• A. Mask and eye shield
• B. Gown and gloves
• C. N95 respirator
• D. Surgical mask only

Answer: B. Gown and gloves
Rationale: Contact precautions require gown and gloves to prevent transmission via direct
contact. Mask/eye shield are for droplet/airborne; N95 for airborne; surgical mask alone is
insufficient.


Q7. A nurse is preparing to administer a tuberculin skin test. Which injection site and method are
correct?

• A. Deltoid, subcutaneous
• B. Vastus lateralis, intramuscular
• C. Forearm, intradermal
• D. Abdomen, intradermal

Answer: C. Forearm, intradermal
Rationale: PPD is given intradermally on the volar surface of the forearm to create a wheal.
Subcutaneous or IM routes would alter absorption and invalidate results.


Q8. A nurse manager is reviewing hand hygiene with staff. Which statement indicates a need for
further teaching?

• A. “I should wash my hands with soap and water if they are visibly soiled.”
• B. “Alcohol-based hand rub is effective against C. diff spores.”
• C. “I can use alcohol-based hand rub before and after contact with each client.”
• D. “Hand hygiene is required before donning gloves.”

Answer: B. “Alcohol-based hand rub is effective against C. diff spores.”
Rationale: Alcohol-based hand rub does NOT kill C. diff spores; soap and water must be used for
spore-forming organisms. The other statements are correct.

, Q9. A nurse is caring for a client with a prescription for wrist restraints. How often must the nurse
remove the restraints and assess the client?

• A. Every 4 hours
• B. Every 2 hours
• C. Every 30 minutes
• D. Every 8 hours

Answer: B. Every 2 hours
Rationale: Restraints must be removed, range of motion performed, and skin assessed at least
every 2 hours (or per facility policy, typically q2h). Q4h is too long; q30min is excessive; q8h is
unsafe.


Q10. A nurse is teaching a client about fire safety in the home. Which statement by the client
indicates understanding?

• A. “I will use a space heater in the bathroom.”
• B. “I will test my smoke detector batteries every 6 months.”
• C. “I will store flammable liquids near the stove.”
• D. “I will disable the smoke alarm while cooking to avoid false alarms.”

Answer: B. “I will test my smoke detector batteries every 6 months.”
Rationale: Smoke detectors should be tested monthly and batteries changed every 6 months.
Space heaters in bathrooms risk electrocution; flammables near stove cause fire; disabling alarms
is dangerous.


Q11. A nurse is delegating ambulation of a client who is post-stroke with right-sided weakness.
Which AP statement indicates understanding of the task?

• A. “I will hold the client’s left arm to provide support.”
• B. “I will stand on the client’s weak side and use a gait belt.”
• C. “I will let the client walk independently to promote strength.”
• D. “I will walk in front of the client to guide them.”

Answer: B. “I will stand on the client’s weak side and use a gait belt.”
Rationale: Stand on the weak side to prevent falls and assist balance. Gait belt is essential. Holding
the unaffected arm is less effective; independent ambulation is unsafe; walking in front does not
provide support.

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