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NUR172 / NUR 172 Exam 1 (Latest 2026 / 2027): Intravenous Therapy for the Practical Nurse | Questions and Verified Answers | Grade A - Hondros

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INSTANT PDF DOWNLOAD — This is the comprehensive exam preparation guide for NUR 172 Exam 1 at Hondros College of Nursing, featuring verified questions and answers with detailed rationales. Designed for nursing students enrolled in the Associate Degree in Nursing (ADN) program at Hondros College, this resource consolidates the critical nursing concepts required to achieve a Grade A score on the first examination of the NUR 172 course. The guide is meticulously aligned with the current Hondros College nursing curriculum, NCLEX-RN test plan, QSEN competencies, and evidence-based practice standards. This verified resource provides comprehensive coverage of key NUR 172 Exam 1 topics, including: nursing process (ADPIE—Assessment (subjective vs. objective data, primary vs. secondary sources), Diagnosis (nursing diagnosis vs. medical diagnosis, NANDA-I approved diagnoses, three-part statement (PES—Problem, Etiology, Signs/Symptoms)), Planning (SMART goals (Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Realistic, Timely), priority setting (Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs, ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation), safety and risk reduction)), Implementation (nursing interventions (independent, dependent, interdependent), delegation (five rights of delegation, LPN vs. RN scope, UAP tasks)), Evaluation (outcome achievement, care plan modification, documentation)), clinical judgment (NCSBN Clinical Judgment Measurement Model (CJMM)—recognizing cues, analyzing cues, prioritizing hypotheses, generating solutions, taking action, evaluating outcomes, Tanner's Clinical Judgment Model (noticing, interpreting, responding, reflecting)), critical thinking (clinical reasoning, diagnostic reasoning, intuition, reflection-in-action vs. reflection-on-action, cognitive biases (confirmation bias, anchoring bias, availability heuristic)), therapeutic communication (therapeutic techniques (active listening, restating, reflecting, clarifying, focusing, silence, summarizing, touch, humor, validation, offering self, giving information, presenting reality), nontherapeutic techniques (advising, belittling, challenging, defending, disapproving, judging, reassuring, stereotyping, probing, changing the subject, false reassurance, passing judgment, asking "why" questions), communication barriers (language differences, health literacy, sensory deficits (hearing, vision), cognitive impairment, emotional distress, environmental distractions, cultural differences), SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation) for handoff reporting, CUS words (I'm Concerned, I'm Uncomfortable, This is a Safety issue), I-PASS handoff (Illness severity, Patient summary, Action list, Situation awareness and contingency plans, Synthesis by receiver), motivational interviewing (OARS—Open-ended questions, Affirmations, Reflective listening, Summaries, change talk, sustain talk, readiness rulers), patient education (domains (cognitive, psychomotor, affective), learning theories (behaviorism, cognitivism, constructivism, humanism), teaching methods (lecture, demonstration, return demonstration, simulation, role-play, discussion, teach-back method (ask patients to explain in their own words), health literacy assessment (REALM, TOFHLA, Newest Vital Sign), learning barriers (low literacy, language, physical disability, cognitive impairment, anxiety, pain, denial, low motivation, cultural beliefs), documentation of teaching (content taught, methods used, patient understanding (teach-back results), follow-up plan)), ethical principles (autonomy (patient's right to make own healthcare decisions, informed consent, refusal of treatment), beneficence (acting in patient's best interest, providing benefits, balancing benefits and risks), nonmaleficence (do no harm, avoid causing harm, prevent harm, remove harm), justice (fair distribution of resources, equitable treatment, nondiscrimination), fidelity (keeping promises, fulfilling commitments, loyalty to patient, follow-through), veracity (truthfulness, honesty, full disclosure, no deception), confidentiality (HIPAA, privacy rule, minimum necessary standard, TPO (Treatment, Payment, Operations), permitted disclosures, breach notification), ethical dilemmas (moral distress, ethical uncertainty, ethical conflict, resolution models (MORAL model—Massage dilemma, Outline options, Review criteria, Affirm position, Look back), advocacy (nurse as patient advocate, speaking up for patient wishes, protecting patient rights, supporting patient decisions, whistleblowing), advance directives (living will (written instructions for end-of-life care), durable power of attorney for healthcare (healthcare surrogate/proxy, appoints decision-maker)

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NUR 172 Exam 1 | Verified Q&A with
Rationales | Hondros College
Nursing Exam Prep | Grade A
Exam Structure:

Subject: NUR 172 Exam 1

Source: NUR 172 Exam 1 - Study Guide (Verified Answers)

Format: Exam-Style Questions with Bolded Questions and Italicized Vertical

Rationales




1. What are the 2025 National Safety Goals for Hospitals?
Correct Answer: 1. Identify patients correctly. 2. Identify patient
safety risks. 3. Use medicines safely. 4. Use alarms safely. 5. Prevent
infection. 6. Prevent mistakes in surgery. 7. Improve communication.
Rationale:
1. These goals are published annually by The Joint Commission to improve
patient safety.
2. Each goal has specific evidence-based requirements for healthcare
organizations.
3. Hospitals must comply with these standards to maintain accreditation.
4. Goals focus on the most common and preventable causes of patient harm.

2. What are the 2025 Nursing Care Center National Patient Safety
Goals?
Correct Answer: 1. Identify patients and residents correctly. 2.
Prevent infection. 3. Prevent bed sores. 4. Prevent patients and
residents from falling. 5. Use medicines safely.

, 2|Page


Rationale:
1. Nursing care centers have unique safety priorities compared to acute care
hospitals.
2. Pressure ulcers (bed sores) and falls are particularly common in long-
term care.
3. Infection prevention includes proper hand hygiene and isolation protocols.
4. Medication safety addresses high-alert drugs and accurate
administration.

3. What is the definition of risk management?
Correct Answer: A process that centers on identification, analysis,
treatment, and evaluation of real and potential hazards.
Rationale:
1. Risk management proactively identifies potential sources of harm.
2. Analyzes root causes and contributing factors of incidents.
3. Implements strategies to reduce or eliminate risks.
4. Continuously evaluates effectiveness of risk reduction measures.

4. What are risk management strategies in healthcare?
Correct Answer: Informed consent, analysis of unusual occurrence
reports, systemic (root cause) analysis of serious adverse (sentinel)
events, and comprehensive and thorough documentation.
Rationale:
1. Informed consent protects patient autonomy and reduces liability.
2. Occurrence reports identify patterns and system failures.
3. Root cause analysis investigates sentinel events to prevent recurrence.
4. Thorough documentation provides legal protection and continuity of care.

5. When does informed consent need to be obtained?
Correct Answer: Before an invasive procedure
Rationale:
1. Invasive procedures carry risks that patients must understand before
agreeing.
2. Consent must be obtained before the procedure begins.
3. Examples include surgery, endoscopy, central line placement, and biopsy.
4. Emergency situations may have exceptions to standard consent
requirements.

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6. What does the patient need to be provided for informed consent?
Correct Answer: Information to be able to make decisions such as the
procedure, its purpose, risks, benefits, and the potential serious or
irreversible risks.
Rationale:
1. Patients must understand what the procedure is and why it is needed.
2. Benefits and risks must be explained in understandable terms.
3. Serious or irreversible risks must be specifically disclosed.
4. Alternatives to the procedure should also be discussed.

7. Informed consent must be what?
Correct Answer: Voluntary
Rationale:
1. Voluntary consent means no coercion, pressure, or manipulation.
2. Patients must feel free to refuse without negative consequences.
3. Healthcare providers cannot use threats or incentives to obtain consent.
4. Voluntary consent respects patient autonomy and legal requirements.

8. There should always be adequate opportunity for the patient to ask
and convey what?
Correct Answer: Questions and concerns
Rationale:
1. Patients must have time to ask questions before consenting.
2. Concerns must be addressed to ensure understanding.
3. Rushing the consent process invalidates informed consent.
4. Documentation should reflect that questions were answered.

9. Consent can be given by what means?
Correct Answer: Conduct
Rationale:
1. Implied consent is demonstrated by a patient's actions or conduct.
2. Example: holding out an arm for a blood draw implies consent.
3. Implied consent is appropriate for non-invasive, low-risk procedures.
4. Written consent is required for invasive or high-risk procedures.

10. What is a sentinel event?

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