NUR 6111 – Advanced Practice Nursing I Practice Exam 2026 – William
Peterson University
1. Which of the following is considered the first-line pharmacologic treatment
for a 55-year-old non-Black patient newly diagnosed with Stage 1 Hypertension
and no other comorbidities?
A. Furosemide
B. Atenolol
C. Hydralazine
D. Lisinopril
Answer: D
Rationale: According to JNC 8 and AHA/ACC guidelines, ACE inhibitors (like Lisinopril),
ARBs, Calcium Channel Blockers, or Thiazide diuretics are first-line for non-Black patients.
Beta-blockers like Atenolol are no longer first-line for uncomplicated HTN.
2. A 65-year-old patient presents with a T-score of -2.6 on a DEXA scan. Which
diagnosis is most appropriate?
A. Osteopenia
B. Normal bone density
C. Osteoporosis
D. Osteomalacia
Answer: C
Rationale: Osteoporosis is defined as a T-score of -2.5 or lower. Osteopenia is defined
between -1.0 and -2.5.
,3. Which screening test is recommended for a 50-year-old male with a 20-pack-
year smoking history who currently smokes?
A. Low-dose computed tomography (LDCT)
B. Annual Chest X-ray
C. Sputum cytology
D. No screening until age 55
Answer: A
Rationale: USPSTF recommends annual screening for lung cancer with LDCT in adults
aged 50 to 80 who have a 20 pack-year smoking history and currently smoke or have quit
within the past 15 years.
4. An NP is treating a patient with community-acquired pneumonia. The patient
has a CURB-65 score of 0. What is the most appropriate setting for treatment?
A. Inpatient intensive care
B. Inpatient general floor
C. Outpatient setting
D. Observation unit for 24 hours
Answer: C
Rationale: A CURB-65 score of 0-1 indicates low risk and suggests that outpatient
treatment is appropriate.
5. Which of the following physical exam findings is most suggestive of iron
deficiency anemia?
A. Splenomegaly
B. Jaundice
C. Koilonychia (spoon-shaped nails)
D. Petechiae
Answer: C
Rationale: Koilonychia is a classic, though late, sign of chronic iron deficiency anemia.
, 6. What is the first-line antibiotic treatment for an adult with acute bacterial
rhinosinusitis who has no drug allergies?
A. Azithromycin
B. Amoxicillin-clavulanate
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
Answer: B
Rationale: Amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin) is recommended as the first-line
treatment for acute bacterial rhinosinusitis due to rising resistance of H. influenzae.
7. Which heart sound is commonly associated with heart failure and fluid
volume overload in an older adult?
A. S3
B. S2
C. S1
D. S4
Answer: A
Rationale: The S3 gallop is a sign of ventricular filling into a dilated, non-compliant
ventricle, often seen in heart failure.
8. The Consensus Model for APRN Regulation includes which four roles?
A. NP, CNS, CRNA, DNP
B. NP, PA, CNS, CNM
C. NP, RN, CNS, LPN
D. NP, CNS, CNM, CRNA
Answer: D
Rationale: The four APRN roles are Nurse Practitioner (NP), Clinical Nurse Specialist
(CNS), Certified Nurse-Midwife (CNM), and Certified Registered Nurse Anesthetist (CRNA).
Peterson University
1. Which of the following is considered the first-line pharmacologic treatment
for a 55-year-old non-Black patient newly diagnosed with Stage 1 Hypertension
and no other comorbidities?
A. Furosemide
B. Atenolol
C. Hydralazine
D. Lisinopril
Answer: D
Rationale: According to JNC 8 and AHA/ACC guidelines, ACE inhibitors (like Lisinopril),
ARBs, Calcium Channel Blockers, or Thiazide diuretics are first-line for non-Black patients.
Beta-blockers like Atenolol are no longer first-line for uncomplicated HTN.
2. A 65-year-old patient presents with a T-score of -2.6 on a DEXA scan. Which
diagnosis is most appropriate?
A. Osteopenia
B. Normal bone density
C. Osteoporosis
D. Osteomalacia
Answer: C
Rationale: Osteoporosis is defined as a T-score of -2.5 or lower. Osteopenia is defined
between -1.0 and -2.5.
,3. Which screening test is recommended for a 50-year-old male with a 20-pack-
year smoking history who currently smokes?
A. Low-dose computed tomography (LDCT)
B. Annual Chest X-ray
C. Sputum cytology
D. No screening until age 55
Answer: A
Rationale: USPSTF recommends annual screening for lung cancer with LDCT in adults
aged 50 to 80 who have a 20 pack-year smoking history and currently smoke or have quit
within the past 15 years.
4. An NP is treating a patient with community-acquired pneumonia. The patient
has a CURB-65 score of 0. What is the most appropriate setting for treatment?
A. Inpatient intensive care
B. Inpatient general floor
C. Outpatient setting
D. Observation unit for 24 hours
Answer: C
Rationale: A CURB-65 score of 0-1 indicates low risk and suggests that outpatient
treatment is appropriate.
5. Which of the following physical exam findings is most suggestive of iron
deficiency anemia?
A. Splenomegaly
B. Jaundice
C. Koilonychia (spoon-shaped nails)
D. Petechiae
Answer: C
Rationale: Koilonychia is a classic, though late, sign of chronic iron deficiency anemia.
, 6. What is the first-line antibiotic treatment for an adult with acute bacterial
rhinosinusitis who has no drug allergies?
A. Azithromycin
B. Amoxicillin-clavulanate
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
Answer: B
Rationale: Amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin) is recommended as the first-line
treatment for acute bacterial rhinosinusitis due to rising resistance of H. influenzae.
7. Which heart sound is commonly associated with heart failure and fluid
volume overload in an older adult?
A. S3
B. S2
C. S1
D. S4
Answer: A
Rationale: The S3 gallop is a sign of ventricular filling into a dilated, non-compliant
ventricle, often seen in heart failure.
8. The Consensus Model for APRN Regulation includes which four roles?
A. NP, CNS, CRNA, DNP
B. NP, PA, CNS, CNM
C. NP, RN, CNS, LPN
D. NP, CNS, CNM, CRNA
Answer: D
Rationale: The four APRN roles are Nurse Practitioner (NP), Clinical Nurse Specialist
(CNS), Certified Nurse-Midwife (CNM), and Certified Registered Nurse Anesthetist (CRNA).
