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NU 150 Exam 3 Pharmacology (2026/2027) | Galen College of Nursing | 150 Q&A with Rationales | GI, Anti-Infectives, Analgesics, Antibiotic Resistance

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Complete NU 150 Exam 3 Study Guide – Pharmacology – Galen College of Nursing (2026/2027 Academic Year) This digital download is a comprehensive 150-question practice exam for NU 150 Pharmacology – Exam 3 at Galen College of Nursing. Designed for nursing students mastering gastrointestinal agents, anti-infectives, analgesics, antibiotic resistance principles, and comprehensive pharmacology review. What's included: 150 multiple-choice questions with detailed rationales 5 organized sections covering all exam topics Answers with evidence-based rationales – learn the "why," not just the "what" Section 1: Gastrointestinal Agents (Q1–25) Proton Pump Inhibitors (omeprazole/Prilosec): reduces gastric acid – take 30–60 min before first meal; long-term use: ↑ fracture risk (↓ calcium absorption), monitor for hip fractures in postmenopausal women; best indicator of effectiveness = patient reports no reflux/heartburn Sucralfate (Carafate): forms protective barrier over ulcers – take 1 hour before meals and at bedtime on empty stomach; separate from antacids by 30 minutes H2 Blockers (famotidine/Pepcid): blocks histamine receptors at parietal cells (different from PPI which blocks acid pump) Ondansetron (Zofran): 5-HT3 receptor antagonist for chemotherapy-induced nausea Metoclopramide (Reglan): dopamine antagonist – risk of tardive dyskinesia (irreversible); limit use to 12 weeks; report uncontrolled face/tongue movements immediately Docusate (Colace): stool softener – increases water/fat penetration into stool (does not stimulate peristalsis) Lactulose: for hepatic encephalopathy – acidifies colon, traps ammonia; therapeutic effect = 2–3 soft stools/day Loperamide (Imodium): for acute diarrhea – stop if constipation develops; seek care if diarrhea 48 hours or fever develops Psyllium (Metamucil): bulk-forming laxative – MUST take with at least 8 oz water (risk of esophageal obstruction) Misoprostol (Cytotec): prevents NSAID-induced gastric ulcers (prostaglandin analog) Prochlorperazine (Compazine): phenothiazine antiemetic – monitor for extrapyramidal symptoms Bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto-Bismol): harmless darkening of tongue/stool Bisacodyl (Dulcolax): stimulant laxative – onset 6–12 hours Pancrelipase (Creon): pancreatic enzymes – take with meals and snacks (do not crush capsules) Lubiprostone (Amitiza): chloride channel activator for constipation – take with food/water (reduces nausea) Polyethylene glycol (Miralax): osmotic laxative – draws water into colon Senna: stimulant laxative – long-term use may cause dependence/loss of normal bowel function Scopolamine patch: for motion sickness – apply behind ear at least 4 hours before travel; do not cut patch Aluminum hydroxide antacid: causes constipation (magnesium-based antacids cause diarrhea) Section 2: Anti-Infective Agents (Antibiotics, Antivirals, Antifungals) – Q26–55 Ciprofloxacin (Cipro): fluoroquinolone – monitor for superinfection (C. diff, candidiasis); chelates with calcium, iron, magnesium, zinc (separate by 2 hours before or 6 hours after); avoid dairy, antacids Tetracycline/doxycycline: binds with calcium in dairy – avoid dairy products; doxycycline: photosensitivity (avoid sun, use sunscreen); doxycycline absorption improved with food (unique among tetracyclines) Broad-spectrum antibiotics: kill variety of bacteria – used empirically until culture/sensitivity results Culture and sensitivity: obtain specimen BEFORE starting antibiotics C. difficile infection: severe diarrhea after antibiotics – contact precautions; soap and water hand hygiene (alcohol sanitizer does NOT kill spores); fidaxomicin (Difficid) – narrower spectrum, preserves gut flora Vancomycin IV: Red Man Syndrome – slow infusion over ≥60 minutes; trough levels (draw immediately before next dose); therapeutic trough 10–20 mcg/mL (serious infections 15–20 mcg/mL); nephrotoxic + ototoxic (especially with gentamicin) Gentamicin (aminoglycoside): nephrotoxicity (↑ creatinine, ↓ urine output); ototoxicity (tinnitus – irreversible); peak level 30–60 min after infusion; trough before next dose Isoniazid (INH): for TB – hepatotoxicity (monitor LFTs, report jaundice/dark urine); peripheral neuropathy – take vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) supplement Amphotericin B: "shake and bake" – pre-medicate with acetaminophen, diphenhydramine, hydrocortisone; monitor hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, nephrotoxicity Metronidazole (Flagyl): disulfiram-like reaction with alcohol – avoid alcohol during and for 48 hours after Sulfonamides (Bactrim): increase fluids (prevent crystalluria); Stevens-Johnson syndrome risk (report rash immediately); trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole + warfarin → ↑ INR Nitrofurantoin (Macrobid): harmless dark brown/rust-colored urine; long-term use → pulmonary fibrosis Rifampin: harmless red-orange urine, tears, sweat (stains soft contacts) Acyclovir/Valacyclovir: maintain adequate hydration (prevent nephrotoxicity from crystalluria) Azithromycin (Zithromax): macrolide – monitor for QT prolongation (torsades de pointes) Linezolid (Zyvox): weak MAO inhibitor – avoid tyramine-rich foods (aged cheese, cured meats, wine) → hypertensive crisis Oseltamivir (Tamiflu): for influenza – most effective within 48 hours of symptom onset Fluconazole (Diflucan): single oral dose for vaginal yeast infection Ceftriaxone (Rocephin): biliary sludging/pseudolithiasis (right upper quadrant pain) Penicillin allergy: cephalosporins have 1–10% cross-reactivity (highest with first-generation); anaphylaxis history requires caution Maculopapular rash from amoxicillin (day 7+): Type IV delayed hypersensitivity (not IgE-mediated; does not preclude future penicillin use) Antibiotic resistance/superinfection: priority nursing diagnosis = Risk for infection related to superinfection Probiotics: restore normal gut flora, prevent antibiotic-associated diarrhea Vitamin K deficiency: prolonged antibiotics eliminate gut flora that synthesize vitamin K → ↑ bleeding risk Phlebitis at IV site: discontinue IV, restart at new site Section 3: Analgesics (NSAIDs, Acetaminophen, Opioids, Adjuvants) – Q56–80 Morphine/opioids: priority assessment = respiratory rate (hold if 12/min); urinary retention; constipation (prevent with bowel regimen); pruritus from histamine release – treat with antihistamine (not anaphylaxis) Acetaminophen: maximum daily dose 3,000–4,000 mg (healthy adults); hepatotoxicity is primary concern (leading cause of acute liver failure) Ibuprofen/NSAIDs: contraindicated in clotting disorders (platelet inhibition); monitor for acute kidney injury (↓ renal blood flow); GI bleeding risk; celecoxib (Celebrex) – less GI bleeding but cardiovascular risk remains Aspirin 81 mg: irreversible platelet aggregation inhibition (COX-1) – for secondary stroke prevention Warfarin + NSAIDs: ↑ bleeding risk (avoid ibuprofen – use acetaminophen instead) Naloxone (Narcan): opioid antagonist – competes at receptor sites; reverses respiratory depression; shorter duration than morphine (may require repeat dosing) Ketorolac (Toradol): potent NSAID – limit to ≤5 days (↑ bleeding, renal risk) Gabapentin (Neurontin): anticonvulsant for neuropathic pain – stabilizes neuronal membranes Sumatriptan (Imitrex): triptan for migraines – take at first sign; contraindicated in CAD, uncontrolled hypertension, stroke (cerebral/coronary vasoconstriction) Allopurinol: chronic gout – increases fluid intake (2–3 L/day) to prevent kidney stones; does NOT treat acute attacks (may initially worsen flares); report any rash immediately (Stevens-Johnson risk) Colchicine: acute gout – narrow therapeutic window; stop at first sign of GI toxicity (diarrhea, vomiting) Codeine/Tylenol #3: opioid – avoid driving (sedation) Lidocaine patch (Lidoderm): postherpetic neuralgia – apply 12 hours on, 12 hours off; intact skin only Fentanyl transdermal patch: remove old patch before applying new; do not cut patches; avoid heat (↑ absorption → overdose) Tramadol (Ultram): monitor for seizures Section 4: Antibiotic Resistance & Drug Safety Principles (Q81–100) Penicillin allergic reaction (rash, itching, facial swelling): FIRST action = discontinue medication C. difficile precautions: soap and water hand hygiene (alcohol sanitizer does NOT kill spores) Fidaxomicin (Difficid): narrow-spectrum for C. diff – preserves normal gut flora Vancomycin + gentamicin concurrently: ↑ nephrotoxicity + ototoxicity (monitor closely) Stevens-Johnson syndrome: most commonly associated with sulfonamides Oral vancomycin for C. diff: works locally in GI tract (not absorbed) – no trough monitoring needed Vitamin K deficiency from prolonged antibiotics: gut flora eliminated Penicillin + cephalosporin cross-reactivity: monitor closely (1–10%, highest with first-generation) Maculopapular rash day 7+ on amoxicillin: Type IV delayed hypersensitivity (benign) Tinnitus with gentamicin: early sign of ototoxicity (irreversible) – hold and notify provider Nitrofurantoin long-term: monitor for pulmonary fibrosis Azithromycin + QT prolongation: avoid in patients with known QT prolongation Section 5: Comprehensive Pharmacology Review (Q101–150) Warfarin: avoid aspirin; soft toothbrush, electric razor; report bruising; consistent vitamin K intake Albuterol: excessive use (2×/week) = poor asthma control (need controller medication) Montelukast (Singulair): once daily for long-term asthma control (NOT rescue) Levothyroxine: empty stomach 30–60 min before breakfast; full effect 6–8 weeks; overdose = palpitations, heat intolerance, weight loss (iatrogenic hyperthyroidism) HbA1c 9.2%: poor glycemic control over past 2–3 months Heparin IV: aPTT 120 seconds (control 30) → stop infusion (excessive anticoagulation) Digoxin: hold if apical pulse 60 bpm Furosemide (Lasix): monitor for hypokalemia (potassium-wasting) Lisinopril dry cough: notify provider – may need to switch to ARB (losartan) Sumatriptan contraindications: CAD, uncontrolled hypertension, stroke Phenytoin (Dilantin): gingival hyperplasia – meticulous oral hygiene; toxicity: ataxia, slurred speech, nystagmus (level 20 mcg/mL → hold dose) Lithium: maintain consistent sodium and water intake Alendronate (Fosamax): take with 8 oz plain water, remain upright 30–60 min; report difficulty swallowing/chest pain Spironolactone: avoid bananas, oranges (hyperkalemia risk) Spironolactone + lisinopril: monitor for severe hyperkalemia Metformin: hold 48 hours before and after IV contrast dye (lactic acidosis risk); muscle pain + weakness + abdominal discomfort = suspect lactic acidosis Insulin glargine (Lantus): peakless, 24-hour basal coverage – do NOT mix with other insulins, subcutaneous only NPH + Regular insulin mixing: "Clear before Cloudy" (draw Regular first) TPN hyperglycemia: add regular insulin to TPN bag or sliding scale Enoxaparin (Lovenox): subcutaneous abdomen, do NOT aspirate or massage Clopidogrel (Plavix): black tarry stools = GI bleed Dabigatran (Pradaxa): DO NOT open/crush capsule; store in original bottle Simvastatin (Zocor): report muscle pain/dark urine (rhabdomyolysis); avoid grapefruit juice (↑ levels, toxicity) Amiodarone: monitor for pulmonary fibrosis; ↑ INR with warfarin (reduce warfarin dose 30–50%) Nitroglycerin sublingual: should tingle/burn (indicates potency); replace every 6 months Ipratropium (Atrovent): anticholinergic bronchodilator (blocks acetylcholine) Fluticasone (Flovent) inhaler: rinse mouth after use (prevents oral candidiasis/thrush) Donepezil (Aricept): slows Alzheimer's progression (does NOT cure); GI side effects (nausea, vomiting, diarrhea) Lorazepam (Ativan): do NOT stop abruptly (seizure risk); avoid driving Fluoxetine (Prozac): full effect 4–8 weeks; sexual dysfunction in 30–60% (common, discuss with provider) Sinemet (levodopa-carbidopa): harmless dark urine/sweat/saliva; avoid high-protein meals (↓ absorption); facial twitching/tongue protrusion = dopamine toxicity (dyskinesia) Phenytoin toxicity: ataxia, slurred speech, nystagmus (level 20 mcg/mL → hold dose) Allopurinol: report any rash immediately (Stevens-Johnson risk); increase fluids Methimazole/PTU: report fever/sore throat (agranulocytosis) tPA (alteplase): acute ischemic stroke window = 3–4.5 hours from symptom onset Why this guide works: 150 unique questions – comprehensive coverage of Exam 3 content Detailed rationales – understand mechanisms, side effects, drug interactions, and nursing priorities Clinically relevant – prepare for NCLEX and clinical practice Exam-ready – mirrors the difficulty and style of Galen College of Nursing NU 150 Format: PDF (150 questions + answer key + rationales) Institution: Galen College of Nursing Course: NU 150 – Pharmacology Term: 2026/2027 Exam: 3 of 3 (GI, Anti-Infectives, Analgesics, Antibiotic Resistance, Comprehensive Review) Instant download – study on any device or print for offline use.

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NU 150 EXAM 3 PHARMACOLOGY —
COMPLETE 150-QUESTION PRACTICE
EXAM Galen College of Nursing | 2026/2027 |
Questions with Answers & Rationales



SECTION 1: GASTROINTESTINAL AGENTS (Questions 1-25)
1. A nurse is caring for a patient taking omeprazole. Which of the following is
the best indication that the medication is effective?
A. Decreased bowel sounds
B. The patient reports no gastric reflux or heartburn
C. Increased appetite and weight gain
D. Decreased urination frequency
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that reduces gastric acid.
Symptom relief—less heartburn and reflux—is the best indicator of
effectiveness.
2. A patient is being treated for a superinfection caused by prolonged
antibiotic use. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the
development of the superinfection?
A. The antibiotic dose was too low
B. Overgrowth of resistant organisms
C. The infection was viral, not bacterial
D. The patient did not rest adequately
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Prolonged or broad-spectrum antibiotic therapy disrupts normal
flora, allowing resistant organisms (e.g., C. difficile, Candida) to overgrow
and cause superinfection.

,3. A patient with a history of heart failure asks about using sodium
bicarbonate for indigestion. How should the nurse respond?
A. "It is completely safe to use every day."
B. "Sodium bicarbonate may worsen your heart failure symptoms."
C. "You should double the dose if your indigestion is severe."
D. "Take it with milk to protect your heart."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Sodium bicarbonate contains a high sodium load, which can cause
fluid retention and exacerbate heart failure. HF patients should avoid high-
sodium antacids.
4. A nurse is caring for a patient taking omeprazole. Which complication
should the nurse monitor for in a postmenopausal patient?
A. Deep vein thrombosis
B. Hip fractures
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Cataracts
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Long-term PPI use is associated with decreased calcium
absorption and bone density, increasing the risk of fractures, especially in
older adults.
5. A nurse is caring for a patient taking omeprazole. Which of the following
conditions is most likely to develop with long-term use?
A. Increased risk of fractures
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypothyroidism
D. Increased clotting
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Long-term PPI use is associated with decreased calcium
absorption and reduced bone density, increasing the risk of fractures,
particularly in postmenopausal women and older adults.

,6. A patient is prescribed sucralfate (Carafate) for a duodenal ulcer. The
nurse should instruct the patient to take this medication:
A. With meals to prevent gastric irritation
B. 1 hour before meals and at bedtime on an empty stomach
C. Immediately after meals to coat the stomach lining
D. At the same time as antacids for maximum effect
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Sucralfate forms a protective barrier over ulcers by binding to
exposed proteins. It requires an acidic environment and an empty stomach
to work effectively. Antacids should be avoided 30 minutes before or after
because they alter gastric pH.
7. A patient is prescribed ondansetron (Zofran) for chemotherapy-induced
nausea. The nurse knows this medication works by:
A. Blocking dopamine receptors in the brain
B. Blocking serotonin (5-HT3) receptors in the GI tract and brain
C. Increasing gastric emptying
D. Coating the stomach lining
Correct Answer: B
*Rationale: Ondansetron is a selective 5-HT3 receptor antagonist. It blocks
serotonin receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone and the GI tract,
preventing nausea and vomiting signals.*
8. A patient taking metoclopramide (Reglan) for gastroparesis should be
monitored for which serious neurological side effect?
A. Seizures
B. Tardive dyskinesia
C. Peripheral neuropathy
D. Optic neuritis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Metoclopramide is a dopamine antagonist that can cause
extrapyramidal symptoms and irreversible tardive dyskinesia (involuntary

, movements of the face, tongue, and limbs). Risk increases with duration of
use, especially beyond 12 weeks.
9. A patient is prescribed docusate sodium (Colace). The nurse explains that
this medication works by:
A. Stimulating bowel muscle contraction
B. Softening stool by increasing water and fat penetration
C. Adding bulk to the stool
D. Lubricating the intestinal wall
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Docusate is a stool softener (surfactant). It lowers the surface
tension of stool, allowing water and fats to penetrate and soften the fecal
mass. It does not stimulate peristalsis.
10. A patient is receiving lactulose for hepatic encephalopathy. The nurse
knows the medication is effective when the patient:
A. Has a serum ammonia level within normal limits
B. Reports decreased abdominal pain
C. Has at least 2-3 soft stools per day
D. Shows improvement in liver enzyme levels
Correct Answer: C
*Rationale: Lactulose acidifies the colon, trapping ammonia and promoting
its excretion in stool. Therapeutic effect is measured by achieving 2-3 soft,
acidic stools daily.*
11. A patient prescribed famotidine (Pepcid) asks how this medication differs
from omeprazole. The nurse's best response is:
A. "Famotidine works faster and lasts longer than omeprazole."
B. "Famotidine blocks histamine receptors, while omeprazole blocks the acid
pump itself."
C. "They are exactly the same type of medication."
D. "Famotidine requires a prescription; omeprazole does not."

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