NUR 354 Exam 1: Pharmacology II V2 - Arizona College
Updated and Latest Questions and Correct Answers with
Rationale
1. A patient is prescribed Lisinopril for hypertension. Which side effect should the nurse instruct the patient
to report immediately?
A. Increased appetite
B. Occasional headache
C. Slight fatigue
D. Dry persistent cough
Ans: D
Explanation: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that can cause a buildup of bradykinin in the lungs. This leads
to a characteristic dry and nonproductive cough in many patients. While not life-threatening, it is often
intolerable and requires a change in medication class. Patients may be switched to an ARB if this side
effect persists. It is a hallmark symptom that nurses must monitor during therapy.
2. When administering Digoxin to a patient with heart failure, which laboratory value is most critical to
monitor?
A. Sodium level
B. Potassium level
C. Blood urea nitrogen
D. White blood cell count
Ans: B
,Explanation: Hypokalemia significantly increases the risk of digoxin toxicity because potassium
competes for the same binding site. Low potassium levels allow more digoxin to bind to the ATPase
pump, intensifying its effects. Nurses should monitor for symptoms like yellow halos or nausea which
indicate toxicity. The therapeutic range for digoxin is narrow, usually between 0.5 and 2.0 ng/mL. Always
check the apical pulse for one full minute before administration.
3. A patient is receiving Warfarin for deep vein thrombosis. Which lab test is used to monitor the
effectiveness of this medication?
A. aPTT
B. Platelet count
C. Hemoglobin
D. PT and INR
Ans: D
Explanation: Warfarin therapy is monitored using the Prothrombin Time and International Normalized
Ratio. A therapeutic INR for most conditions ranges between 2.0 and 3.0. This medication acts by
inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors in the liver. Patients should maintain a consistent intake
of green leafy vegetables to avoid fluctuations. Vitamin K serves as the specific antidote in cases of
overdose.
4. Which of the following is the primary mechanism of action for Furosemide?
A. Inhibits sodium reabsorption in the distal tubule
B. Blocks the conversion of Angiotensin I to II
C. Inhibits the sodium-potassium-chloride symporter in the Loop of Henle
D. Antagonizes aldosterone receptors
, Ans: C
Explanation: Furosemide is a potent loop diuretic used for edema and hypertension. It works by
blocking the reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the thick ascending limb of the Loop of Henle. This
leads to significant diuresis and the excretion of various electrolytes. Nurses must monitor for
hypokalemia, dehydration, and potential ototoxicity at high doses. Rapid intravenous administration
should be avoided to prevent hearing loss.
5. A patient is diagnosed with Type 2 Diabetes and started on Metformin. What is a common
gastrointestinal side effect of this drug?
A. Nausea and diarrhea
B. Constipation
C. Dry mouth
D. Increased thirst
Ans: A
Explanation: Metformin often causes gastrointestinal upset including nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea
when first initiated. Taking the medication with meals can help minimize these adverse effects for the
patient. It works by decreasing glucose production in the liver and improving insulin sensitivity. A rare
but serious complication is lactic acidosis, especially in patients with renal impairment. Patients should
be advised that these GI symptoms usually resolve over time.
6. What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient receiving intravenous Gentamicin?
A. Assess for pedal edema
B. Check for visual disturbances
C. Observe for increased hair growth
Updated and Latest Questions and Correct Answers with
Rationale
1. A patient is prescribed Lisinopril for hypertension. Which side effect should the nurse instruct the patient
to report immediately?
A. Increased appetite
B. Occasional headache
C. Slight fatigue
D. Dry persistent cough
Ans: D
Explanation: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that can cause a buildup of bradykinin in the lungs. This leads
to a characteristic dry and nonproductive cough in many patients. While not life-threatening, it is often
intolerable and requires a change in medication class. Patients may be switched to an ARB if this side
effect persists. It is a hallmark symptom that nurses must monitor during therapy.
2. When administering Digoxin to a patient with heart failure, which laboratory value is most critical to
monitor?
A. Sodium level
B. Potassium level
C. Blood urea nitrogen
D. White blood cell count
Ans: B
,Explanation: Hypokalemia significantly increases the risk of digoxin toxicity because potassium
competes for the same binding site. Low potassium levels allow more digoxin to bind to the ATPase
pump, intensifying its effects. Nurses should monitor for symptoms like yellow halos or nausea which
indicate toxicity. The therapeutic range for digoxin is narrow, usually between 0.5 and 2.0 ng/mL. Always
check the apical pulse for one full minute before administration.
3. A patient is receiving Warfarin for deep vein thrombosis. Which lab test is used to monitor the
effectiveness of this medication?
A. aPTT
B. Platelet count
C. Hemoglobin
D. PT and INR
Ans: D
Explanation: Warfarin therapy is monitored using the Prothrombin Time and International Normalized
Ratio. A therapeutic INR for most conditions ranges between 2.0 and 3.0. This medication acts by
inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors in the liver. Patients should maintain a consistent intake
of green leafy vegetables to avoid fluctuations. Vitamin K serves as the specific antidote in cases of
overdose.
4. Which of the following is the primary mechanism of action for Furosemide?
A. Inhibits sodium reabsorption in the distal tubule
B. Blocks the conversion of Angiotensin I to II
C. Inhibits the sodium-potassium-chloride symporter in the Loop of Henle
D. Antagonizes aldosterone receptors
, Ans: C
Explanation: Furosemide is a potent loop diuretic used for edema and hypertension. It works by
blocking the reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the thick ascending limb of the Loop of Henle. This
leads to significant diuresis and the excretion of various electrolytes. Nurses must monitor for
hypokalemia, dehydration, and potential ototoxicity at high doses. Rapid intravenous administration
should be avoided to prevent hearing loss.
5. A patient is diagnosed with Type 2 Diabetes and started on Metformin. What is a common
gastrointestinal side effect of this drug?
A. Nausea and diarrhea
B. Constipation
C. Dry mouth
D. Increased thirst
Ans: A
Explanation: Metformin often causes gastrointestinal upset including nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea
when first initiated. Taking the medication with meals can help minimize these adverse effects for the
patient. It works by decreasing glucose production in the liver and improving insulin sensitivity. A rare
but serious complication is lactic acidosis, especially in patients with renal impairment. Patients should
be advised that these GI symptoms usually resolve over time.
6. What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient receiving intravenous Gentamicin?
A. Assess for pedal edema
B. Check for visual disturbances
C. Observe for increased hair growth
