NSG552 EXAM 1 ACTUAL TEST PAPER 2026
COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
GRADED A+
◉ Pharmacodynamics. Answer: Studies how the drug acts on the
body
◉ First-generation antipsychotic. Answer: - first developed in the
1950s, first available treatment for psychosis
- aka typical antipsychotics
- increased risk for EPS, Tardive dyskinesia
- d2 blocker
- Currently 11 FDA-approved and commerically available FGAs
- Most common differences between individual FGAs are their
potency and side effects
- examples include Thorazine (chlorpromazine), Haldol
(haloperidol), Prolixin (fluphenazine), perphenazine (Trilafon
◉ Second-generation antipsychotic. Answer: - examples include
Abilify (aripiprazole), Seroquel (quetiapine), Zyprexa (olanzapine),
Risperdal (risperidone), Clozaril (clozapine)
- lower risk of EPS symptoms compared to 1st gen
- higher risk of metabolic side effects
,- serotonin-dopamine receptor antagonists
- AKA atypical antipsychotics
◉ EPS. Answer: Involuntary movements that occur as a side effect to
certina medications. AKA drug induced movement disorder. May
include tardive dyskinesia, dystonic reactions, parkinsons-like
symptoms, akathesia, NMD, akinesia
- Can be acute or chronic
- related to suppression of D2 dopamine receptors in the
nigrostriatal pathway
◉ Tardive dyskinesia. Answer: - characterized by involuntary
movments in the face and body
- often induced by long-term use of anitpsychotic drugs
- can be associated with use of other medication types
(antidepressants, lithium, antihistamines)
- more common with 1st gen antipsychotics
- movements may include: writhing, mouth puckering, tongue
rolling, lip smacking, pill rolling, tongue protrusion
◉ Upregulation. Answer: Refers to the activiation of the nervous
system. Is the process by which a cell increases its response to a
subtance or signal from outside the cell to carry out a specific
response
,◉ downregulation. Answer: Refers to state of calm/relation within
nervous system. Characterized by a decreased response by a cell to a
molecule or neurotransmitter.
◉ Receptor Profiles. Answer: FGA - Primarily D2 antagonism. Also
antagonize M2, H1, and a1 receptors
SGA - 5-HT2A & D2 antagonism. Rapid D2 dissociation. 5HT2A
agonism. Also antagonizes M2, H1, 5HT2C, and a1 receptors
◉ Binding. Answer: When a neurotransmitter binds to a receptor on
a receiving cell, it causes ion channels to open or close.
◉ Affinity. Answer: The property of a drug that describes its ability
to bind to a receptor
Constant
Unique for each drug-receptor pair as it is dependent on each of
their structures
◉ CYP450. Answer: - membrane-bound hemoproteins that play a
pivotal role in the detoxification of xenobiotics, cellular metabolism,
and homeostatis
-Inhibitition or induction of CYP enzymes is a major mechanism
underlying drug-drug interactions
, - A CYP450 inhibitor prevents or reduces work by CYP450 enzymes
= decreased drug metabolism and increased risk for toxicity
- A CYP450 inducer increases rate of hepatic metabolism =
decreased serum concentation of other drugs metabolized by the
same hepatic isoenzyme
Grapefruit juice is an inhibtior, which can increase serum levels of
certain drugs
◉ Dopamine Pathways. Answer: - mesolimbic (positive sx)
- mesocortical (negative sx)
- nigrostriatal (EPS)
- tuberoinfundibular (prolactin)
◉ Metabolic Syndrome. Answer: cluster of conditions that incerase
risk for T2DM and cardiovascular disease (obesity, HTN, high
triglycerides, low HDL, insulin resistance)
-increased risk for metabolic syndrome found with some
antipsychotic medications, primarily SGA
◉ High Potency vs Low Potency. Answer: High potency: higher risk
for EPS/hyperprolactinemia. Effective at lower doses. Haldol,
risperdal, prolixin, olanzapine
Low potency: more sedating with more anticholinergic symptoms.
Thorazine, seroquel, clozaril, geodon
COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
GRADED A+
◉ Pharmacodynamics. Answer: Studies how the drug acts on the
body
◉ First-generation antipsychotic. Answer: - first developed in the
1950s, first available treatment for psychosis
- aka typical antipsychotics
- increased risk for EPS, Tardive dyskinesia
- d2 blocker
- Currently 11 FDA-approved and commerically available FGAs
- Most common differences between individual FGAs are their
potency and side effects
- examples include Thorazine (chlorpromazine), Haldol
(haloperidol), Prolixin (fluphenazine), perphenazine (Trilafon
◉ Second-generation antipsychotic. Answer: - examples include
Abilify (aripiprazole), Seroquel (quetiapine), Zyprexa (olanzapine),
Risperdal (risperidone), Clozaril (clozapine)
- lower risk of EPS symptoms compared to 1st gen
- higher risk of metabolic side effects
,- serotonin-dopamine receptor antagonists
- AKA atypical antipsychotics
◉ EPS. Answer: Involuntary movements that occur as a side effect to
certina medications. AKA drug induced movement disorder. May
include tardive dyskinesia, dystonic reactions, parkinsons-like
symptoms, akathesia, NMD, akinesia
- Can be acute or chronic
- related to suppression of D2 dopamine receptors in the
nigrostriatal pathway
◉ Tardive dyskinesia. Answer: - characterized by involuntary
movments in the face and body
- often induced by long-term use of anitpsychotic drugs
- can be associated with use of other medication types
(antidepressants, lithium, antihistamines)
- more common with 1st gen antipsychotics
- movements may include: writhing, mouth puckering, tongue
rolling, lip smacking, pill rolling, tongue protrusion
◉ Upregulation. Answer: Refers to the activiation of the nervous
system. Is the process by which a cell increases its response to a
subtance or signal from outside the cell to carry out a specific
response
,◉ downregulation. Answer: Refers to state of calm/relation within
nervous system. Characterized by a decreased response by a cell to a
molecule or neurotransmitter.
◉ Receptor Profiles. Answer: FGA - Primarily D2 antagonism. Also
antagonize M2, H1, and a1 receptors
SGA - 5-HT2A & D2 antagonism. Rapid D2 dissociation. 5HT2A
agonism. Also antagonizes M2, H1, 5HT2C, and a1 receptors
◉ Binding. Answer: When a neurotransmitter binds to a receptor on
a receiving cell, it causes ion channels to open or close.
◉ Affinity. Answer: The property of a drug that describes its ability
to bind to a receptor
Constant
Unique for each drug-receptor pair as it is dependent on each of
their structures
◉ CYP450. Answer: - membrane-bound hemoproteins that play a
pivotal role in the detoxification of xenobiotics, cellular metabolism,
and homeostatis
-Inhibitition or induction of CYP enzymes is a major mechanism
underlying drug-drug interactions
, - A CYP450 inhibitor prevents or reduces work by CYP450 enzymes
= decreased drug metabolism and increased risk for toxicity
- A CYP450 inducer increases rate of hepatic metabolism =
decreased serum concentation of other drugs metabolized by the
same hepatic isoenzyme
Grapefruit juice is an inhibtior, which can increase serum levels of
certain drugs
◉ Dopamine Pathways. Answer: - mesolimbic (positive sx)
- mesocortical (negative sx)
- nigrostriatal (EPS)
- tuberoinfundibular (prolactin)
◉ Metabolic Syndrome. Answer: cluster of conditions that incerase
risk for T2DM and cardiovascular disease (obesity, HTN, high
triglycerides, low HDL, insulin resistance)
-increased risk for metabolic syndrome found with some
antipsychotic medications, primarily SGA
◉ High Potency vs Low Potency. Answer: High potency: higher risk
for EPS/hyperprolactinemia. Effective at lower doses. Haldol,
risperdal, prolixin, olanzapine
Low potency: more sedating with more anticholinergic symptoms.
Thorazine, seroquel, clozaril, geodon
