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NURS 5434/ NURS5434 HTN Quiz – Family III (FNP 3) Review| UTA (Latest 2026 Update) 100% Verified Questions & Answers | Grade A

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his document covers a hypertension management quiz for NURS 5434 FNP III, featuring 50 verified questions and answers aligned with the latest 2026/2027 UTA updates. It focuses on clinical assessment, diagnosis, and management of hypertension in family practice settings. The material is ideal for exam preparation and reinforcing advanced practice nursing knowledge in cardiovascular care.

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NURS 5434 / NURS5434 HTN Quiz - Family
III (FNP 3) Review
UTA (Latest 2026|2027 Update)
100% Verified Questions & Answers | Grade A

Family Nurse Practitioner Hypertension Management Quiz - 50 Questions



Course: NURS 5434 (Family III)
Program: Family Nurse Practitioner (FNP)
University: The University of Texas at Arlington (UTA)
Date: April 2026
Total Questions: 50 (Multiple-Choice Questions)
Alignment: 2017 ACC/AHA Hypertension Guidelines | AANP Certification Standards
NCSBN Clinical Judgment Measurement Model | UTA FNP Curriculum

,NURS 5434 HTN Quiz | FNP 3 Review | UTA | 2026|2027 Update




Abstract

Hypertension remains the leading modifiable risk factor for cardiovascular disease, stroke,
chronic kidney disease, and premature mortality worldwide, affecting approximately 47% of
adults in the United States. This examination addresses the comprehensive scope of
hypertension management as delineated in the NURS 5434 Family Nurse Practitioner
curriculum at The University of Texas at Arlington. The 50-question assessment spans five core
domains: classification and diagnostic evaluation aligned with the 2017 ACC/AHA blood
pressure guidelines; evidence-based first-line pharmacotherapy selection incorporating race,
comorbidity, and renal function considerations; resistant and secondary hypertension
management including primary aldosteronism and fibromuscular dysplasia screening; special
population management encompassing geriatric, pregnant, chronic kidney disease, and diabetic
patients; and patient education strategies emphasizing lifestyle interventions and quality metrics.
Questions are designed at multiple cognitive levels (recall, application, and analysis) with
approximately 75% scenario-based clinical vignettes reflecting primary care decision-making.
This assessment aligns with AANP certification standards and the NCSBN Clinical Judgment
Measurement Model, preparing FNP students for evidence-based hypertension management in
diverse clinical settings.

Keywords: Hypertension Management, FNP Certification, ACC/AHA Guidelines,
Pharmacotherapy, Resistant Hypertension, Primary Care


Examination Blueprint

Section Domain Q Range Count Cognitive Focus

HTN Classification, Risk Stratification &
1 Q1-Q10 10 30% Recall / 50% Application / 20% Analysis
Diagnostic Evaluation

First-Line Pharmacotherapy, Guideline-Based
2 Q11-Q22 12 25% Recall / 55% Application / 20% Analysis
Selection & Titration

Resistant HTN, Secondary Causes &
3 Q23-Q35 13 25% Recall / 45% Application / 30% Analysis
Complex Comorbidity

4 Special Populations Q36-Q45 10 20% Recall / 50% Application / 30% Analysis

5 Patient Education, Lifestyle & Monitoring
Q46-Q50 5 20% Recall / 60% Application / 20% Analysis




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, NURS 5434 HTN Quiz | FNP 3 Review | UTA | 2026|2027 Update




Section 1: HTN Classification, Risk Stratification & Diagnostic Evaluation
(Q1-Q10)

1. A 52-year-old African American male presents for a routine physical examination. His blood pressure readings are
134/86 mmHg today, 132/84 mmHg two weeks ago, and 136/88 mmHg one month ago. His ASCVD 10-year risk is
calculated at 8%. According to the 2017 ACC/AHA hypertension guidelines, how should his blood pressure be
classified?
A. Normal
B. Elevated
C. Stage 1 Hypertension [CORRECT]
D. Stage 2 Hypertension
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: According to the 2017 ACC/AHA guidelines, Stage 1 Hypertension is defined as systolic BP 130-139 mmHg OR
diastolic BP 80-89 mmHg. This patient has persistent readings in this range. An ASCVD risk of 8% is below the 10% threshold
that would trigger immediate pharmacologic therapy, so lifestyle modification alone is recommended initially (Whelton et al.,
2017).

2. A 45-year-old woman is found to have elevated office blood pressure readings (average 148/92 mmHg) but her home
blood pressure log over two weeks shows average readings of 118/76 mmHg. Which of the following best describes this
clinical finding?
A. Masked hypertension
B. White-coat hypertension [CORRECT]
C. Sustained hypertension
D. Pseudohypertension
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: White-coat hypertension is defined as persistently elevated office BP readings (>130/80 mmHg) with normal
out-of-office readings. Home BP monitoring targets for hypertension diagnosis are >=130/80 mmHg, and this patient's readings
are well below that threshold. Ambulatory BP monitoring (ABPM) is the gold standard for confirmation, with daytime thresholds
of >=130/80 mmHg (Whelton et al., 2017; Muntner et al., 2019).

3. A 60-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus and a 10-year ASCVD risk of 14% has blood pressure readings of
142/94 mmHg on two separate visits. What is the most appropriate initial diagnostic workup for this patient?
A. Complete metabolic panel, CBC, urinalysis, fasting lipid panel, ECG, and urine microalbumin [CORRECT]
B. Renal artery Doppler, plasma metanephrines, and morning cortisol
C. Echocardiogram, cardiac MRI, and 24-hour urine protein
D. TSH only, with reassessment in 3 months
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The initial diagnostic workup for all patients with newly diagnosed hypertension includes a BMP (electrolytes,
glucose, renal function), CBC, urinalysis, fasting lipid panel, TSH, and ECG. In diabetic patients, urine microalbumin is essential
to assess for nephropathy. Secondary HTN workup (renal artery imaging, metanephrines, cortisol) is reserved for clinical clues
suggesting secondary causes (Whelton et al., 2017; AHA/ACC, 2018).

4. A 38-year-old woman presents with paroxysmal episodes of severe headache, diaphoresis, and palpitations. During an
episode, her blood pressure is 210/130 mmHg. Between episodes, her BP is 128/78 mmHg. Which of the following is
the most appropriate next diagnostic test?
A. 24-hour urine fractionated metanephrines [CORRECT]
B. Morning aldosterone-to-renin ratio
C. Overnight dexamethasone suppression test
D. Renal artery angiography
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The triad of paroxysmal headache, diaphoresis, and tachycardia with extreme BP elevation between episodes is classic
for pheochromocytoma. The initial diagnostic test of choice is 24-hour urine fractionated metanephrines or plasma free
metanephrines, which have sensitivity >95%. An aldosterone-to-renin ratio evaluates for primary aldosteronism, which presents
with sustained rather than paroxysmal hypertension (Lenders et al., 2014; Whelton et al., 2017).




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