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ATI CMS Fundamentals Proctored Exam ACTUAL EXAM 2026/2027 | Nursing Fundamentals | Verified Q&A | Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded

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Pass your ATI CMS Fundamentals Proctored exam with this complete 2026/2027 actual exam. This resource contains 70 comprehensive questions with verified answers and detailed rationales covering safety protocols, basic care and comfort, infection control, mobility assistance, hygiene practices, and legal nursing standards. Backed by our Pass Guarantee. Download now.

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ATI CMS Fundamentals Proctored Exam
ACTUAL EXAM 2026/2027 | Nursing
Fundamentals | Verified Q&A | Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded


Section 1: Safety & Infection Control (14 Questions)

Q1: A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with Clostridioides difficile (C. diff). Which of the following
infection control precautions should the nurse implement?

A. Standard precautions only
B. Airborne precautions with N95 mask
C. Droplet precautions with surgical mask
D. Contact precautions with gown and gloves [CORRECT]

Rationale: C. diff requires contact precautions, including gown and gloves upon entering the room,
because transmission occurs via direct contact with contaminated surfaces or fecal matter. Alcohol-
based hand rub is not effective against C. diff spores; soap and water hand hygiene must be used.
Standard precautions alone are insufficient for C. diff.



Q2: A nurse enters the room of a client with confirmed tuberculosis. Which PPE is required?

A. Surgical mask and gloves
B. N95 respirator mask [CORRECT]
C. Gown and gloves only
D. Face shield and standard mask

Rationale: Tuberculosis requires airborne precautions with an N95 respirator mask (or PAPR) because
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is transmitted via airborne droplet nuclei that remain suspended in air. The
client should be in a negative pressure room. Surgical masks are insufficient for airborne pathogens;
they protect against droplet transmission only.

,Q3: A nurse is preparing to administer medication to a client. When should the nurse perform hand
hygiene?

A. Only after touching the client
B. Only before touching the client
C. Before and after client contact [CORRECT]
D. Only if visibly soiled

Rationale: Hand hygiene must be performed before client contact to prevent transmitting organisms to
the client, and after contact to prevent transmitting organisms from the client to the environment or
other clients. The WHO "5 Moments for Hand Hygiene" includes before/after touching a client,
before/after procedures, and after touching the environment.



Q4: A client with influenza is admitted to the hospital. Which isolation precautions are required?

A. Contact precautions
B. Droplet precautions [CORRECT]
C. Airborne precautions
D. Protective isolation

Rationale: Influenza requires droplet precautions (surgical mask within 3 feet of client) because
transmission occurs via large respiratory droplets (>5 micrometers) that travel short distances. Contact
precautions are added if the client has copious secretions. Airborne precautions are for pathogens like
tuberculosis and measles that remain suspended in air.



Q5: A nurse is caring for a confused client who repeatedly attempts to remove their IV catheter. Which
action should the nurse take first?

A. Apply wrist restraints immediately
B. Use alternative interventions such as mitts, closer observation, or distraction [CORRECT]
C. Sedate the client with PRN medication
D. Allow the client to remove the IV

Rationale: The least restrictive intervention principle requires attempting alternatives (mitts, distraction,
family presence, frequent reorientation) before restraints. Restraints require a physician order within 1
hour of application for adults and carry risks of injury and death. Sedation is not a first-line intervention;
allowing IV removal risks client harm.



Q6: A nurse discovers a medication error (wrong dose administered). The priority action is:

, A. Complete an incident report immediately
B. Assess the client for adverse effects and notify the provider [CORRECT]
C. Document the error in the client's medical record
D. Wait to see if the client develops symptoms

Rationale: Client safety is the priority—assess for adverse effects, implement necessary interventions,
and notify the provider. Incident reports are completed after client stabilization and are not placed in
the medical record (quality improvement documents). Documenting the error in the chart creates
liability; waiting risks client harm.



Q7: A nurse is transferring a client from bed to wheelchair using a gait belt. Which technique is correct?

A. Lift the client by pulling up on the gait belt
B. Position the wheelchair on the client's weak side
C. Use the gait belt to support and guide the client during the transfer [CORRECT]
D. Hold the client's arm during the transfer

Rationale: Gait belts provide support and stability during transfers; the nurse uses the belt to guide and
steady the client while the client bears weight as able. Lifting by the belt can injure the client or nurse.
The wheelchair should be on the strong side for pivot transfers. Holding the arm risks shoulder injury
(nursemaid's elbow, dislocation).



Q8: A nurse is caring for a client with MRSA in a wound. Which PPE is required when entering the room?

A. N95 mask
B. Gown and gloves [CORRECT]
C. Surgical mask only
D. Face shield only

Rationale: Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) requires contact precautions: gown and
gloves for room entry. The gown prevents clothing contamination; gloves prevent hand contamination.
N95 masks are for airborne pathogens; surgical masks are for droplet; face shields protect against
splashes. MRSA is not transmitted via airborne or droplet routes in standard circumstances.



Q9: A nurse is giving report to the oncoming nurse using SBAR communication. The "B" component
includes:

A. Current vital signs and assessment findings
B. Background information such as diagnosis, history, and recent events [CORRECT]

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